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Practice Version:
https://awslagi.com/associate-vmware-data-center-virtualization-1v0-21-20-part-1
https://awslagi.com/associate-vmware-data-center-virtualization-1v0-21-20-part-2
https://awslagi.com/associate-vmware-data-center-virtualization-1v0-21-20-part-3
Q21. A vSphere operator finds this error message:
Device or filesystem with identifier [naa.1234567890] has entered the All Paths Down state. What should the operator conclude from this error message?
A. A host failed, and automated recovery of affected VMs is expected.
B. A storage device is inaccessible and is expected to become available.
C. A host is inaccessible, and migration of affected VMs is expected.
D. A storage device has failed and is not expected to become available.
Q22. An administrator is concerned that a VM has high ballooning activity and needs to check the default display of the Advanced Performance pane in the vSphere Client to confirm this activity. Which view should the administrator choose in the default display?
A. Power
B. Network
C. Virtual disk
D. Memory
Q23. Which two physical resources are abstracted by the hypervisor and presented to virtual machines? (Choose two.)
A. Libraries
B. CPU
C. Application
D. Desktop
E. Memory
Q24. An administrator has observed an alert message in the vSphere UI related to a host’s storage sensor hardware. Where should the administrator look for more information related to this alert?
A. Host > Monitor > Hardware Health > System Event Log
B. Host > Monitor > Hardware Health > Storage Sensors
C. Menu > Lifecycle Manager > Baselines
D. Host > Monitor > Skyline Health
Q25. What is a benefit of VMware vSphere Storage APIs – Data Protection?
A. It allows backup of a virtual machine with a backup agent in the guest OS.
B. It facilitates decentralized, on-host, LAN-free backup of vSphere virtual machines.
C. It increases ESX host resources to do backup processing.
D. It enables centralized, off-host, LAN-free backup of vSphere virtual machines.
Q26. Which configuration setting ensures that virtual networks on a virtual switch are isolated from each other?
A. VLAN ID
B. Port ID
C. Network Label
D. Security Policy
Q27. During a virtual machine migration, which VMkernel networking layer handles the traffic?
A. vSphere vMotion
B. vSAN
C. IP storage
D. Fault Tolerance
Q28. Which two improvements to the management of a VM are gained when VMware Tools are used? (Choose two.)
A. Synchronizes time between the guest and the host
B. Adds VM alarms to the inventory
C. Performs a clone of the VM
D. Makes a graceful shutdown of the VM possible
E. Allows a snapshot before the guest OS is upgraded
Q29. Traditional operating systems allocate resources such as CPU and memory for applications installed on computers. Which vSphere component schedules resources for virtual machines in a similar way?
A. Virtual Hardware
B. VMware Tools
C. ESXi Hypervisor
D. vCenter Server
Q30. An operator must deploy three 0 named Win10-Template, and all three VMs must be configured with unique computer names. Which action must the operator take to achieve this goal?
A. Use a Windows 10 customization specification when deploying the virtual machines.
B. Export Win10-Template to the local filesystem, and then change the computer name.
C. Create the virtual machines using the New Virtual Machine wizard.
D. Clone Win10-Template three times, and then change the computer name in each clone.
Q31. A vSphere cluster running a virtual machine with VMware HA and DRS enabled in fully automated mode is experiencing a catastrophic host failure. Which action can the administrator expect DRS to take?
A. It will pro-actively move the virtual machine to a different cluster.
B. It will pro-actively move the virtual machine to a different host.
C. It will move the VM to a host in the same cluster with enough resources after the HA restart.
D. It will move the VM to a host in a different cluster with enough resources after the HA restart.
Q32. An administrator needs to update an OS running on a virtual machine and wants to be able to revert to the previous state if any issues occur after the update. Which steps should be used in the vSphere Client to meet this requirement?
A. Right click on the VM > Clone > Clone to Template
B. Right click on the VM > Clone > Clone to Virtual Machine
C. Right click on the VM > Migrate
D. Right click on the VM > Snapshots > Take Snapshot
Q33. An administrator wants to ensure that a copy of a virtual machine can still power up on another data center during a disaster. Which feature meets this requirement?
A. vSphere High Availability
B. vMotion
C. Fault Tolerance
D. vSphere Replication
Q34. A system administrator needs to configure a virtual machine to guarantee that it always gets the appropriate resources even if the host is overloaded and overcommitted. Which setting on the virtual machine does the administrator need to configure?
A. vSphere High Availability Admission Control
B. High Performance Power Policy
C. CPU and Memory Shares to High
D. CPU and Memory Reservations
Q35. Which two block storage protocols are supported on vSphere? (Choose two.)
A. SAN
B. SMB
C. NFSv4.1
D. iSCSI
E. NFSv3
Q36. Which vSphere DRS setting determines how aggressive vSphere DRS will be when recommending migrations to improve VM happiness?
A. Automation Level
B. Migration Threshold
C. Virtual Machine Automation
D. Predictive DRS
Q37. Which piece of information does vSphere DRS consider when making decisions about which host to place a virtual machine?
A. Storage bandwidth on the host
B. Network usage by the virtual machine
C. Network bandwidth on the host
D. Disk usage by the virtual machine
Q38. Which feature must be enabled to configure vSphere Proactive HA?
A. vSphere HA
B. Cluster EVC
C. vSphere DRS
D. Fault Tolerance
Q39. Which hypervisor is a type-1 hypervisor?
A. VMware Fusion
B. VMware Workstation
C. Oracle VM VirtualBox
D. VMware ESXi
Q40. Which feature allows an administrator to implement master copies of virtual machines to create ready-for-use virtual machines?
A. Custom Attributes
B. Snapshots
C. Templates
D. Resource Pools