Check Point Certified Security Administrator Topic 1
Question #: 124
Topic #: 1
For Automatic Hide NAT rules created by the administrator what is a TRUE statement?
A. Source Port Address Translation (PAT) is enabled by default.
B. Source Port Address Translation (PAT) is disabled by default.
C. Automatic NAT rules are supported for Network objects only.
D. Automatic NAT rules are supported for Host objects only.
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 80
Topic #: 1
The VPN Link Selection will perform the following if the primary VPN link goes down?
A. The Firewall will send out the packet on all interfaces
B. The Firewall will inform the client that the tunnel is down
C. The Firewall can update the Link Selection entries to start using a different link for the same tunnel
D. The Firewall will drop the packets
Selected Answer: C
Question #: 8
Topic #: 1
True or False: More than one administrator can log into the Security Management Server with SmartConsole with write permission at the same time.
A. True, every administrator works on a different database that is independent of the other administrators
B. False, only one administrator can login with write permission
C. True, every administrator works in a session that is independent of the other administrators
D. False, this feature has to be enabled in the Global Properties
Selected Answer: C
Question #: 7
Topic #: 1
In the Check Point three-tiered architecture, which of the following is NOT a function of the Security Management Server?
A. Verify and compile Security Policies.
B. Display policies and logs on the administrator’s workstation.
C. Store firewall logs to hard drive storage.
D. Manage the object database.
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 2
Topic #: 1
Which icon in the WebUI indicates that read/write access is enabled?
A. Eyeglasses
B. Pencil
C. Padlock
D. Book
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 135
Topic #: 1
Which of the following is NOT a tracking log option in R81.x?
A. Full Log
B. Log
C. Detailed Log
D. Extended Log
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 3
Topic #: 1
Which SmartConsole tab is used to monitor network and security performance?
A. Logs Monitor
B. Manage Settings
C. Security Policies
D. Gateway Servers
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 5
Topic #: 1
In SmartConsole, on which tab are Permissions and Administrators defined?
A. MANAGE & SETTINGS
B. SECURITY POLICIES
C. GATEWAYS & SERVERS
D. LOGS & MONITOR
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 59
Topic #: 1
What is the default tracking option of a rule?
A. None
B. Alert
C. Log
D. Tracking
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 55
Topic #: 1
A security zone is a group of one or more network interfaces from different centrally managed gateways. What is considered part of the zone?
A. Security Zones are not supported by Check Point firewalls.
B. The firewall rule can be configured to include one or more subnets in a zone.
C. The zone is based on the network topology and determined according to where the interface leads to.
D. The local directly connected subnet defined by the subnet IP and subnet mask.
Selected Answer: C
Question #: 53
Topic #: 1
Rugged appliances are small appliances with ruggedized hardware and like Quantum Spark appliance they use which operating system?
A. Gaia iOS
B. Red Hat Enterprise Linux version 4
C. Centos Unix
D. Gaia embedded
Selected Answer: D
Question #: 17
Topic #: 1
In which deployment is the security management server and Security Gateway installed on the same appliance?
A. Switch
B. Standalone
C. Distributed
D. Remote
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 27
Topic #: 1
By default, which port is used to connect to the GAiA Portal?
A. 4434
B. 80
C. 8080
D. 443
Selected Answer: D
Question #: 141
Topic #: 1
Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform.
A. There is one default user that can be deleted.
B. There are two default users and neither can be deleted.
C. There is only one default user that cannot be deleted.
D. There are two default users and one cannot be deleted.
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 114
Topic #: 1
Check Point licenses come in two forms. What are those forms?
A. Security Gateway and Security Management.
B. On-premise and Public Cloud.
C. Central and Local.
D. Access Control and Threat Prevention.
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 101
Topic #: 1
At what point is the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) created?
A. When an administrator initially logs into SmartConsole.
B. During the primary Security Management Server deployment process.
C. Upon creation of a certificate.
D. When an administrator decides to create one.
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 71
Topic #: 1
Where is the “Hit Count” feature enabled or disabled in SmartConsole?
A. In Global Properties.
B. On each Security Gateway.
C. On the Policy layer.
D. On the Policy Package.
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 106
Topic #: 1
Fill in the blanks: Gaia can be configured using the ______ or ______.
A. GaiaUI; command line interface (serial console only)
B. Gaia Interface; Gaia Ultimate Shell
C. Command line interface; GAiA Portal
D. Web Ultimate Interface; Gaia Interface (SSH)
Selected Answer: C
Question #: 127
Topic #: 1
Which Autonomous Threat Prevention profile uses sanitization technology?
A. Cloud/data Center
B. Guest Network
C. Sandbox
D. Perimeter
Selected Answer: D
Question #: 67
Topic #: 1
Main Mode in iKEv1 uses how many packages for negotiation?
A. 3
B. depends on the make of the peer gateway
C. 6
D. 4
Selected Answer: C
Question #: 62
Topic #: 1
Fill in the blank: The position of an Implied rule is manipulated in the _____ window.
A. Firewall
B. Object Explorer
C. Global Properties
D. NAT
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 54
Topic #: 1
What command from the CLI would be used to view current licensing?
A. cplic print
B. show license -s
C. fw ctl tab -t license -s
D. license view
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 42
Topic #: 1
Fill in the blanks: The _____ collects logs and sends them to the _____.
A. Log server; Security Gateway
B. Security Gateways; log server
C. Log server; security management server
D. Security management server; Security Gateway
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 108
Topic #: 1
How many users can have read/write access in Gaia Operating System at one time?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Infinite
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 142
Topic #: 1
What is the purpose of a Stealth Rule?
A. A rule that allows administrators to access SmartConsole from any device.
B. To drop any traffic destined for the firewall that is not otherwise explicitly allowed.
C. A rule at the end of your policy to drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed.
D. A rule used to hide a server’s IP address from the outside world.
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 138
Topic #: 1
How many layers make up the TCP/IP model?
A. 6
B. 4
C. 7
D. 2
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 117
Topic #: 1
Which command shows the installed licenses in Expert mode?
A. show licenses
B. fwlic print
C. cplic print
D. print cplic
Selected Answer: C
Question #: 104
Topic #: 1
In a Distributed deployment, the Security Gateway and the Security Management software are installed on what platforms?
A. The installation can be done on virtual machines only, but not on appliances and not in mixed environments.
B. The installation is done on different computers or appliances.
C. The installation is done on the same computer or appliance.
D. The installation is allowed in Azure only but not in AWS cloud environments.
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 113
Topic #: 1
The Online Activation method is available for Check Point manufactured appliances. How does the administrator use the Online Activation method?
A. The cpinfo command must be run on the firewall with the switch -online-license-activation.
B. Using the Gaia First Time Configuration Wizard, the appliance connects to the Check Point User Center and downloads all necessary licenses and contracts.
C. The SmartLicensing GUI tool must be launched from the SmartConsole for the Online Activation tool to start automatically.
D. No action is required if the firewall has internet access and a DNS server to resolve domain names.
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 100
Topic #: 1
What are the types of Software Containers?
A. Smart Console, Security Management, and Security Gateway
B. Security Management, Security Gateway, and Endpoint Security
C. Security Management, Standalone, and Security Gateway
D. Security Management, Log & Monitoring, and Security Policy
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 30
Topic #: 1
After a new Log Server is added to the environment and the SIC trust has been established with the SMS what will the gateways do?
A. Gateways will send new firewall logs to the new Log Server as soon as the SIC trust is set up between the SMS and the new Log Server.
B. Logs are not automatically forwarded to a new Log Server. SmartConsole must be used to manually configure each gateway to send its logs to the server.
C. The firewalls will detect the new Log Server after the next policy install and redirect the new logs to the new Log Server.
D. The gateways can only send logs to an SMS and cannot send logs to a Log Server. Log Servers are proprietary log archive servers.
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 118
Topic #: 1
In SmartConsole, objects are used to represent physical and virtual network components and also some logical components. These objects are divided into several categories. Which of the following is NOT an objects category?
A. Network Object
B. IP Address
C. Limit
D. Custom Application / Site
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 137
Topic #: 1
Which information is included in the “Extended Log” tracking option, but is not included in the “Log” tracking option?
A. data type information
B. application information
C. file attributes
D. destination port
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 115
Topic #: 1
True or False: In a Distributed Environment, a Central License can be installed via CLI on a Security Gateway.
A. True, Central Licenses can be installed with CPLIC command on a Security Gateway
B. True, CLI is the preferred method for Licensing
C. False, Central Licenses are installed via Gaia on Security Gateways
D. False, Central Licenses are handled via Security Management Server
Selected Answer: D
Question #: 102
Topic #: 1
The purpose of the Communication Initialization process is to establish a trust between the Security Management Server (SMS) to other Check Point Gateways and Servers. Which statement best describes this Secure Internal Communication (SIC)?
A. After successful initialization, the gateway can communicate with any Check Point node that possesses a SIC certificate signed by the same ICA.
B. New firewalls can easily establish the trust by using the expert password defined on the SMS and the SMS IP address.
C. A SIC certificate is automatically generated on the gateway because the gateway hosts a subordinate CA to the SMS ICA.
D. Secure Internal Communications authenticates the security gateway to the SMS before http communications are allowed.
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 45
Topic #: 1
What is the main objective when using Application Control?
A. To see what users are doing.
B. Ensure security and privacy of information.
C. To filter out specific content.
D. To assist the firewall blade with handling traffic.
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 29
Topic #: 1
Which command shows detailed information about VPN tunnels?
A. cat $FWDIR/conf/vpn.conf
B. vpn tu tlist
C. vpn tu
D. cpview
Selected Answer: D
Question #: 26
Topic #: 1
What are the three types of UserCheck messages?
A. ask, block, and notify
B. block, action, and warn
C. action, inform, and ask
D. inform, ask, and drop
Selected Answer: D
Question #: 109
Topic #: 1
Which part of SmartConsole allows administrators to add, edit, delete, and clone objects?
A. Object Explorer
B. Object Navigator
C. Object Editor
D. Object Browser
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 76
Topic #: 1
In HTTPS Inspection policy, what actions are available in the “Actions” column of a rule?
A. “Inspect”, “Bypass”, “Block”
B. “Inspect”, “Bypass”, “Categorize”
C. “Inspect”, “Bypass”
D. “Detect”, “Bypass”
Selected Answer: C
Question #: 38
Topic #: 1
Fill in the blanks: A Check Point software license consists of a _____ and _____.
A. Software container; software package
B. Software package; signature
C. Signature; software blade
D. Software blade; software container
Selected Answer: D
Question #: 36
Topic #: 1
URL Filtering cannot be used to:
A. Control Data Security
B. Decrease legal liability
C. Improve organizational security
D. Control Bandwidth issues
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 4
Topic #: 1
Check Point Update Service Engine (CPUSE), also known as Deployment Agent [DA], is an advanced and intuitive mechanism for software deployment on Gaia OS. What software packages are supported for deployment?
A. It supports deployments of single HotFixes (HF), and of Major Versions. Blink Packages and HotFix Accumulators (Jumbo) are not supported.
B. It supports deployments of single HotFixes (HF), of HotFix Accumulators (Jumbo), and of Major Versions.
C. It supports deployments of Major Versions and Blink packages only.
D. It supports deployments of single HotFixes (HF), of HotFix Accumulators (Jumbo), but not of Major Versions.
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 1
Topic #: 1
Which default Gaia user has full read/write access?
A. superuser
B. monitor
C. altuser
D. admin
Selected Answer: D
Question #: 112
Topic #: 1
Which of the following is considered a “Subscription Blade”, requiring renewal every 1-3 years?
A. IPS blade
B. IPSEC VPN Blade
C. Firewall Blade
D. Identity Awareness Blade
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 82
Topic #: 1
Fill in the blanks: The Application Layer Firewalls inspect traffic through the _____ layer(s) of the TCP/IP model and up to and including the _____ layer.
A. Upper; Application
B. Lower; Application
C. First two; Internet
D. First two; Transport
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 79
Topic #: 1
Which of the following is NOT an alert option?
A. SNMP
B. User defined alert
C. High alert
D. Mail
Selected Answer: C
Question #: 77
Topic #: 1
Why is a Central License the preferred and recommended method of licensing?
A. Central Licensing ties to the IP address of the management server and is not dependent on the IP of any gateway in the event it changes.
B. Central Licensing actually not supported with Gaia.
C. Central Licensing ties to the IP address of a gateway and can be changed to any gateway if needed.
D. Central Licensing is the only option when deploying Gaia.
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 68
Topic #: 1
Which is a main component of the Check Point security management architecture?
A. Proxy Server
B. Endpoint VPN client
C. Identity Collector
D. SmartConsole
Selected Answer: D
Question #: 66
Topic #: 1
What is required for a certificate-based VPN tunnel between two gateways with separate management systems?
A. Shared Secret Passwords
B. Unique Passwords
C. Shared User Certificates
D. Mutually Trusted Certificate Authorities
Selected Answer: D
Question #: 65
Topic #: 1
Fill in the blank: In order to install a license, it must first be added to the _____.
A. Package repository
B. Download Center Web site
C. License and Contract repository
D. User Center
Selected Answer: C
Question #: 63
Topic #: 1
Which of the following situations would not require a new license to be generated and installed?
A. The existing license expires.
B. The Security Gateway is upgraded.
C. The license is upgraded.
D. The IP address of the Security Management or Security Gateway has changed.
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 61
Topic #: 1
When should you generate new licenses?
A. Only when the license is upgraded.
B. After a device upgrade.
C. When the existing license expires, the license is upgraded, or the IP address associated with the license changes.
D. Before installing contract files.
Selected Answer: C
Question #: 58
Topic #: 1
Fill in the blank: SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and _____ allow viewing of billions of consolidated logs and shows them as prioritized security events.
A. SmartMonitor
B. SmartReporter
C. SmartTracker
D. SmartView Web Application
Selected Answer: D
Question #: 57
Topic #: 1
Which encryption algorithm is the least secured?
A. 3DES
B. AES-128
C. DES
D. AES-256
Selected Answer: C
Question #: 52
Topic #: 1
You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp. You received a call that one of the users is unable to browse the Internet on their new tablet which is connected to the company wireless, which goes through a Check Point Gateway. How would you review the logs to see what is blocking this traffic?
A. Open SmartEvent to see why they are being blocked.
B. From SmartConsole, go to the Log & Monitor tab and filter for the IP address of the tablet.
C. Open SmartMonitor and connect remotely to the wireless controller.
D. Open SmartUpdate and review the logs tab.
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 33
Topic #: 1
Which Check Point software blade monitors Check Point devices and provides a picture of network and security performance?
A. Logging and Status
B. Monitoring
C. Threat Emulation
D. Application Control
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 34
Topic #: 1
Which type of Check Point license ties the package license to the IP address of the Security Management Server?
A. Formal
B. Corporate
C. Central
D. Local
Selected Answer: C
Question #: 97
Topic #: 1
What is the main difference between Static NAT and Hide NAT?
A. Static NAT only allows outgoing connections. Hide NAT allows incoming and outgoing connections.
B. Hide NAT only allows incoming connections to protect your network.
C. Static NAT allow incoming and outgoing connections. Hide NAT only allows outgoing connections.
D. Static NAT only allows incoming connections to protect your network.
Selected Answer: C
Question #: 60
Topic #: 1
Fill in the blank: Once a license is activated, a _____ should be installed.
A. License Management file
B. License Contract file
C. Security Gateway Contract file
D. Service Contract file
Selected Answer: D
Question #: 15
Topic #: 1
Which type of Check Point license is tied to the IP address of a specific Security Gateway and cannot be transferred to a gateway that has a different IP address?
A. Formal
B. Central
C. Local
D. Corporate
Selected Answer: C
Question #: 90
Topic #: 1
In order to see real-time and historical graph views of Security Gateway statistics in SmartView Monitor, what feature needs to be enabled on the Security Gateway?
A. Monitoring Blade
B. SNMP
C. None – the data is available by default
D. Logging & Monitoring
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 94
Topic #: 1
What is required for a site-to-site VPN tunnel that does not use certificates?
A. Unique Passwords
B. Pre-Shared Secret
C. SecureID
D. RSA Token
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 99
Topic #: 1
If there is an Accept Implied Policy set to “First”, what is the reason Jorge cannot see any logs?
A. Track log column is set to Log instead of Full Log.
B. Log Implied Rule was not selected on Global Properties.
C. Track log column is set to none.
D. Log Implied Rule was not set correctly on the track column on the rules base.
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 43
Topic #: 1
Which of the following is NOT an authentication scheme used for accounts created through SmartConsole?
A. RADIUS
B. SecurID
C. Check Point password
D. Security questions
Selected Answer: D
Question #: 44
Topic #: 1
Which of the following statements about Site-to-Site VPN Domain-based is NOT true?
A. Route-based- The Security Gateways will have a Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) for each VPN Tunnel with a peer VPN Gateway. The Routing Table can have routes to forward traffic to these VTIs. Any traffic routed through a VTI is automatically identified as VPN Traffic and is passed through the VPN Tunnel associated with the VTI.
B. Domain-based- VPN domains are pre-defined for all VPN Gateways.
A VPN domain is a service or user that can send or receive VPN traffic through a VPN Gateway.
C. Domain-based- VPN domains are pre-defined for all VPN Gateways. A VPN domain is a host or network that can send or receive VPN traffic through a VPN Gateway.
D. Domain-based- VPN domains are pre-defined for all VPN Gateways.
When the Security Gateway encounters traffic originating from one VPN Domain with the destination to a VPN Domain of another VPN Gateway, that traffic is identified as VPN traffic and is sent through the VPN Tunnel between the two Gateways.
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 46
Topic #: 1
Fill in the blank: Backup and restores can be accomplished through _____.
A. CLI, SmartUpdate, or SmartBackup
B. SmartUpdate, SmartBackup, or SmartConsole
C. SmartConsole, WebUI, or CLI
D. WebUI, CLI, or SmartUpdate
Selected Answer: C
Question #: 47
Topic #: 1
What kind of NAT enables Source Port Address Translation by default?
A. Automatic Hide NAT
B. Automatic Static NAT
C. Manual Static NAT
D. Manual Hide NAT
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 48
Topic #: 1
Fill in the blanks: In _____ NAT, Only the _____ is translated.
A. Hide; source
B. Simple; source
C. Static; source
D. Hide; destination
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 49
Topic #: 1
Application Control/URL filtering database library is known as:
A. AppWiki
B. Application-Forensic Database
C. Application Library
D. Application database
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 50
Topic #: 1
Of all the Check Point components in your network, which one changes most often and should be backed up most frequently?
A. Security Management Server
B. Security Gateway
C. SmartConsole
D. SmartManager
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 51
Topic #: 1
Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in different tables?
A. Application Layer Firewall
B. Packet Filtering
C. Next-Generation Firewall
D. Stateful Inspection
Selected Answer: D
Question #: 87
Topic #: 1
Both major kinds of NAT support Hide and Static NAT. However, one offers more flexibility. Which statement is true?
A. Manual NAT can offer more flexibility than Automatic NAT.
B. Dynamic NAT with Port Address Translation can offer more flexibility than Network Address Translation (NAT) Overloading.
C. Automatic NAT can offer more flexibility than Manual NAT.
D. Dynamic Network Address Translation (NAT) Overloading can offer more flexibility than Port Address Translation.
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 81
Topic #: 1
A layer can support different combinations of blades. What are the supported blades:
A. Firewall, NAT, Content Awareness and Mobile Access
B. Firewall, URLF, Content Awareness and Mobile Access
C. Firewall (Network Access Control), Application & URL Filtering and Content Awareness
D. Firewall (Network Access Control), Application & URL Filtering, Content Awareness and Mobile Access
Selected Answer: D
Question #: 78
Topic #: 1
In order for changes made to policy to be enforced by a Security Gateway, what action must an administrator perform?
A. Install policy
B. Publish changes
C. Install database
D. Save changes
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 75
Topic #: 1
When a Security Gateway communicates about its status to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option was chosen?
A. Targeted
B. Bridge Mode
C. Distributed
D. Standalone
Selected Answer: C
Question #: 74
Topic #: 1
Which Check Point software blade prevents malicious files from entering a network using virus signatures and anomaly-based protections from ThreatCloud?
A. Anti-spam and Email Security
B. Anti-Virus
C. Firewall
D. Application Control
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 73
Topic #: 1
In order to modify Security Policies the administrator can use which of the following tools? Select the BEST answer.
A. Command line of the Security Management Server or mgmt_cli.exe on any Windows computer.
B. SmartConsole or mgmt_cli (API) on any computer where SmartConsole is installed.
C. mgmt_cli (API) or WebUI on Security Gateway and SmartConsole on the Security Management Server.
D. SmartConsole and WebUI on the Security Management Server.
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 72
Topic #: 1
Log query results can be exported to what file format?
A. Comma Separated Value (csv).
B. Word Document (docx).
C. Text (txt).
D. Portable Document Format (pdf).
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 70
Topic #: 1
Fill in the blank: A(n) _____ rule is created by an administrator and configured to allow or block traffic based on specified criteria.
A. Explicit
B. Implicit drop
C. Implicit accept
D. Inline
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 69
Topic #: 1
What are the two types of NAT supported by the Security Gateway?
A. Destination and Hide
B. Source and Destination
C. Static and Source
D. Hide and Static
Selected Answer: D
Question #: 56
Topic #: 1
Which of the completed statements is NOT true? The GAiA Portal (WebUI) can be used to manage Operating System user accounts and:
A. assign privileges to users.
B. assign user rights to the directory structure on the Security Management Server.
C. add more users to the Gaia operating system.
D. change the home directory of the user.
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 25
Topic #: 1
Which Check Point software blade provides protection from zero-day and undiscovered threats?
A. Threat Extraction
B. Threat Emulation
C. Firewall
D. Application Control
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 24
Topic #: 1
What are the three main components of Check Point security management architecture?
A. Smart Console, Standalone, Security Management Server
B. Policy-Client, Security Management Server, Security Gateway
C. SmartConsole, Security Policy Server, Logs & Monitoring
D. SmartConsole, Security Management Server, Security Gateway
Selected Answer: D
Question #: 23
Topic #: 1
When dealing with policy layers, what two layer types can be utilized?
A. Inbound Layers and Outbound Layers
B. Ordered Layers and Inline Layers
C. Structured Layers and Overlap Layers
D. R81.X does not support Layers
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 21
Topic #: 1
Which of the following is NOT a valid application navigation tab in SmartConsole?
A. WEBUI & COMMAND LINE
B. SECURITY POLICIES
C. GATEWAYS & SERVERS
D. LOGS & MONITOR
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 19
Topic #: 1
DLP and Mobile Access Policy are examples of what type of Policy?
A. Shared Policies
B. Unified Policies
C. Inspection Policies
D. Standard Policies
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 18
Topic #: 1
Which software blade enables Access Control policies to accept, drop, or limit web site access based on user, group, and/or machine?
A. Data Awareness
B. Threat Emulation
C. Application Control
D. Identity Awareness
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 16
Topic #: 1
Tom has connected to the Management Server remotely using SmartConsole and is in the process of making some Rule Base changes, when he suddenly loses connectivity. Connectivity is restored shortly afterward. What will happen to the changes already made?
A. Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, and access the Management cache store on that computer, which is only accessible after a reboot.
B. Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, clear the cache, and restore changes.
C. Tom’s changes will have been stored on the Management when he reconnects and he will not lose any of his work.
D. Tom’s changes will be lost since he lost connectivity and he will have to start again.
Selected Answer: C
Question #: 14
Topic #: 1
A Check Point Software license consists of two components, the Software Blade and the Software Container. There are _____ types of Software Containers: _____.
A. Two; Security Management and Endpoint Security
B. Three; Security Management, Security Gateway, and Endpoint Security
C. Three; Security Gateway, Endpoint Security, and Gateway Management
D. Two; Endpoint Security and Security Gateway
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 12
Topic #: 1
One of major features in SmartConsole is concurrent administration. Which of the following is NOT possible considering that AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?
A. AdminB sees a pencil icon next the rule that AdminB is currently editing.
B. AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.
C. AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.
D. AdminC sees a lock icon which indicates that the rule is locked for editing by another administrator.
Selected Answer: C
Question #: 11
Topic #: 1
What are the two deployment options available for a security gateway?
A. Bridge and Switch
B. Local and Remote
C. Cloud and Router
D. Standalone and Distributed
Selected Answer: D
Question #: 10
Topic #: 1
If there are two administrators logged in at the same time to the SmartConsole, and there are objects locked for editing, what must be done to make them available to other administrators? Choose the BEST answer.
A. Delete older versions of database.
B. Publish or discard the session.
C. Revert the session.
D. Save and install the Policy.
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 64
Topic #: 1
You have enabled “Extended Log” as a tracking option to a security rule. However, you are still not seeing any data type information. What is the MOST likely reason?
A. Log Trimming is enabled.
B. Content Awareness is not enabled.
C. Logging has disk space issues.
D. Identity Awareness is not enabled.
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 91
Topic #: 1
How do logs change when the “Accounting” tracking option is enabled on a traffic rule?
A. Involved traffic logs are updated every 10 minutes to show how much data has passed on the connection.
B. Involved traffic logs will be forwarded to a log server.
C. Provides additional information to the connected user.
D. Provides log details view email to the Administrator.
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 40
Topic #: 1
What are the two elements of address translation rules?
A. Original packet and translated packet
B. Manipulated packet and original packet
C. Untranslated packet and manipulated packet
D. Translated packet and untranslated packet
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 35
Topic #: 1
Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides protection from malicious software that can infect your network computers? Choose the BEST answer.
A. Anti-Malware
B. Content Awareness
C. Anti-Virus
D. IPS
Selected Answer: C
Question #: 92
Topic #: 1
What are the software components used by Autonomous Threat Prevention Profiles in R81.20 and higher?
A. Sandbox, ThreatCloud, Zero Phishing, Sanitization, C&C Protection, IPS, File and URL Reputation
B. IPS, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction
C. Sandbox, ThreatCloud, Sanitization, C&C Protection, IPS
D. IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, SandBlast and Macro Extraction
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 98
Topic #: 1
What default layers are included when creating a new policy layer?
A. Application Control, URL Filtering and Threat Prevention
B. Firewall, Application Control and IPSec VPN
C. Firewall, Application Control and IPS
D. Access Control, Threat Prevention and HTTPS Inspection
Selected Answer: D
Question #: 95
Topic #: 1
Fill in the blanks: A _____ license requires an administrator to designate a gateway for attachment whereas a license is automatically attached to a Security Gateway.
A. Local; formal
B. Central; local
C. Formal; corporate
D. Local; central
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 83
Topic #: 1
When configuring Anti-Spoofing, which tracking options can an Administrator select?
A. Log, Alert, None
B. Drop Packet, Alert, None
C. Log, Allow Packets, Email
D. Log, Send SNMP Trap, Email
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 41
Topic #: 1
Which of the following log queries would show only dropped packets with source address of 192.168.1.1 and destination address of 172.26.1.1?
A. 192.168.1.1 AND 172.26.1.1 AND drop
B. src:192.168.1.1 AND dst:172.26.1.1 AND action:Drop
C. 192.168.1.1 OR 172.26.1.1 AND action:Drop
D. src:192.168.1.1 OR dst:172.26.1.1 AND action:Drop
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 39
Topic #: 1
Which of the following is used to initially create trust between a Gateway and Security Management Server?
A. One-time Password
B. Token
C. Certificate
D. Internal Certificate Authority
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 37
Topic #: 1
Which one of the following is TRUE?
A. One policy can be either inline or ordered, but not both.
B. Inline layer can be defined as a rule action.
C. Ordered policy is a sub-policy within another policy.
D. Pre-R80 Gateways do not support ordered layers.
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 32
Topic #: 1
Using the SmartConsole, which pre-defined Permission Profile should be assigned to an administrator that requires full access to audit all configurations without modifying them?
A. Read Only All
B. Full Access
C. Editor
D. Super User
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 31
Topic #: 1
Which of the following is a valid deployment option?
A. CloudSec deployment
B. Disliked deployment
C. Router only deployment
D. Standalone deployment
Selected Answer: D
Question #: 28
Topic #: 1
Choose what BEST describes a Session.
A. Sessions ends when policy is pushed to the Security Gateway.
B. Sessions locks the policy package for editing.
C. Starts when an Administrator logs in through SmartConsole and ends when the Administrator logs out.
D. Starts when an Administrator publishes all the changes made on SmartConsole.
Selected Answer: C
Question #: 22
Topic #: 1
What are two basic rules Check Point recommends for building an effective security policy?
A. Accept Rule and Drop Rule
B. Explicit Rule and Implied Rule
C. Cleanup Rule and Stealth Rule
D. NAT Rule and Reject Rule
Selected Answer: C
Question #: 20
Topic #: 1
What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?
A. Read-only
B. Expert
C. Clish
D. Bash
Selected Answer: C
Question #: 13
Topic #: 1
Which one of the following is the preferred licensing model? Select the BEST answer.
A. Local licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the gateway and has no dependency of the Security Management Server.
B. Local licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the gateway management interface and has no Security Management Server dependency.
C. Central licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the Security Management Server and has no dependency on the gateway.
D. Central licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the Security Management Server’s Mgmt-interface and has no dependency on the gateway.
Selected Answer: C
Question #: 9
Topic #: 1
What Check Point tool is used to automatically update Check Point products for the Gaia OS?
A. Check Point Update Engine
B. Check Point Upgrade Installation Service
C. Check Point Upgrade Service Engine (CPUSE)
D. Check Point INSPECT Engine
Selected Answer: C
Question #: 6
Topic #: 1
Which tool allows automatic update of Gaia OS and Check Point products installed on Gaia OS?
A. CPDAS – Check Point Deployment Agent Service
B. CPUSE – Check Point Upgrade Service Engine
C. CPASE – Check Point Automatic Service Engine
D. CPAUE – Check Point Automatic Update Engine
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 84
Topic #: 1
What licensing feature automatically verifies current licenses and activates new licenses added to the License and Contracts repository?
A. Automatic Licensing and Verification tool
B. Verification licensing
C. Verification tool
D. Automatic licensing
Selected Answer: D
Question #: 85
Topic #: 1
What are valid authentication methods for mutual authenticating the VPN gateways?
A. Pre-shared Secret and PKI Certificates
B. PKI Certificates and Kerberos Tickets
C. Pre-Shared Secrets and Kerberos Ticket
D. PKI Certificates and DynamicID OTP
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 86
Topic #: 1
Which option in tracking allows you to see the amount of data passed in the connection?
A. Advanced
B. Accounting
C. Data
D. Logs
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 88
Topic #: 1
Fill in the blank: Once a certificate is revoked from the Security Gateway by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is _____.
A. Stored on the Security Management Server.
B. Stored on the Certificate Revocation List.
C. Sent to the Internal Certificate Authority.
D. Sent to the Security Administrator.
Selected Answer: B
Question #: 89
Topic #: 1
Which of the following blades is NOT subscription-based and therefore does not have to be renewed on a regular basis?
A. Threat Emulation
B. Anti-Virus
C. Advanced Networking Blade
D. Application Control
Selected Answer: C
Question #: 93
Topic #: 1
In large organizations where there are a number of managed Check Point firewalls that generate a lot of logs it is recommended to install the Log Server on a dedicated computer. Which statement is FALSE?
A. The dedicated Log Server must be the same version as the Security Management Server.
B. A Log Server has a SIC certificate which allows secure communication with the SMS and Security Gateways.
C. More than one Log Server can be installed.
D. A dedicated SmartEvent server is required for a separate Log Server to be deployed in the SmartEvent server.
Selected Answer: A
Question #: 96
Topic #: 1
When URL Filtering is set, what identifying data gets sent to the Check Point Online Web Service?
A. The full URL, including page data, is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service.
B. The URL and IP address are sent to the Check Point Online Web Service.
C. The host part of the URL is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service.
D. The URL and server certificate are sent to the Check Point Online Web Service.
Selected Answer: C
