Notes: Hi all, AWS SysOps Administrator Associate Practice Exam will familiarize you with types of questions you may encounter on the certification exam and help you determine your readiness or if you need more preparation and/or experience. Successful completion of the practice exam does not guarantee you will pass the certification exam as the actual exam is longer and covers a wider range of topics.
We highly recommend you should take AWS SysOps Administrator Associate Guarantee Part because it include real questions and highlighted answers are collected in our exam. It will help you pass exam in easier way.

1. A user has created numerous EBS volumes. What is the general limit for each AWS account for the maximum number of EBS volumes that can be created?
A. 10000
B. 5000
C. 100
D. 1000

2. A user is launching an EC2 instance in the US East region. Which of the below mentioned options is recommended by AWS with respect to the selection of the availability zone?
A. Always select the US-East-1-a zone for HA
B. Do not select the AZ; instead let AWS select the AZ
C. The user can never select the availability zone while launching an instance
D. Always select the AZ while launching an instance

3. You have started a new job and are reviewing your company’s infrastructure on AWS. You notice one web application where they have an Elastic Load Balancer (ELB) in front of web instances in an Auto Scaling Group. When you check the metrics for the ELB in CloudWatch you see four healthy instances. In Availability Zone (AZ) A and zero in AZ B There are zero unhealthy instances. What do you need to fix to balance the instances across AZs?
A. Set the ELB to only be attached to another AZ
B. Make sure Auto Scaling is configured to launch in both AZs
C. Make sure your AMI is available in both AZs
D. Make sure the maximum size of the Auto Scaling Group is greater than 4

4. If you want to launch Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) Instances and assign each Instance a predetermined private IP address you should:
A. Assign a group or sequential Elastic IP address to the instances.
B. Launch the instances in a Placement Group.
C. Launch the instances in the Amazon virtual Private Cloud (VPC).
D. Use standard EC2 instances since each instance gets a private Domain Name Service (DNS) already.
E. Launch the Instance from a private Amazon Machine image (Mil).

5. You have a server with a 5O0GB Amazon EBS data volume. The volume is 80% full. You need to back up the volume at regular intervals and be able to re-create the volume in a new Availability Zone in the shortest time possible. All applications using the volume can be paused for a period of a few minutes with no discernible user impact. Which of the following backup methods will best fulfill your requirements?
A. Take periodic snapshots of the EBS volume
B. Use a third party Incremental backup application to back up to Amazon Glacier
C. Periodically back up all data to a single compressed archive and archive to Amazon S3 using a parallelized multi-part upload
D. Create another EBS volume in the second Availability Zone attach it to the Amazon EC2 instance, and use a disk manager to mirror me two disks

6. Your application currently leverages AWS Auto Scaling to grow and shrink as load Increases’ decreases and has been performing well. Your marketing team expects a steady ramp up in traffic to follow an upcoming campaign that will result in a 20x growth in traffic over 4 weeks. Your forecast for the approximate number of Amazon EC2 instances necessary to meet the peak demand is 175. What should you do to avoid potential service disruptions during the ramp up in traffic?
A. Ensure that you have pre-allocated 175 Elastic IP addresses so that each server will be able to obtain one as it launches.
B. Check the service limits in Trusted Advisor and adjust as necessary so the forecasted count remains within limits.
C. Change your Auto Scaling configuration to set a desired capacity of 175 prior to the launch of the marketing campaign.
D. Pre-warm your Elastic Load Balancer to match the requests per second anticipated during peak demand prior to the marketing campaign.

7. A user has configured an EC2 instance in the US-East-1a zone. The user has enabled detailed monitoring of the instance. The user is trying to get the data from CloudWatch using a CLI. Which of the below mentioned CloudWatch endpoint URLs should the user use?
A. monitoring.us-east-1.amazonaws.com
B. monitoring.us-east-1-a.amazonaws.com
C. monitoring.us-east-1a.amazonaws.com
D. cloudwatch.us-east-1a.amazonaws.com

http://docs.aws.amazon.com/general/latest/gr/rande.html

8. You are designing a system that has a Bastion host. This component needs to be highly available without human intervention. Which of the following approaches would you select?
A. Run the bastion on two instances one in each AZ
B. Run the bastion on an active Instance in one AZ and have an AMI ready to boot up in the event of failure
C. Configure the bastion instance in an Auto Scaling group Specify the Auto Scaling group to include multiple AZs but have a min-size of 1 and max-size of 1
D. Configure an ELB in front of the bastion instance

9. When attached to an Amazon VPC which two components provide connectivity with external networks? (Choose two.)
A. Elastic IPS (EIP)
B. NAT Gateway (NAT)
C. Internet Gateway {IGW)
D. Virtual Private Gateway (VGW)

10. A user has launched an EC2 instance. However, due to some reason the instance was terminated. If the user wants to find out the reason for termination, where can he find the details?
A. It is not possible to find the details after the instance is terminated
B. The user can get information from the AWS console, by checking the Instance description under the State transition reason label
C. The user can get information from the AWS console, by checking the Instance description under the Instance Status Change reason label
D. The user can get information from the AWS console, by checking the Instance description under the Instance Termination reason label

11. A user is observing the EC2 CPU utilization metric on CloudWatch. The user has observed some interesting patterns while filtering over the 1 week period for a particular hour. The user wants to zoom that data point to a more granular period. How can the user do that easily with CloudWatch?
A. The user can zoom a particular period by selecting that period with the mouse and then releasing the mouse
B. The user can zoom a particular period by double clicking on that period with the mouse
C. The user can zoom a particular period by specifying the aggregation data for that period
D. The user can zoom a particular period by specifying the period in the Time Range

12. A user is creating a Cloudformation stack. Which of the below mentioned limitations does not hold true for Cloudformation?
A. One account by default is limited to 100 templates
B. The user can use 60 parameters and 60 outputs in a single template
C. The template, parameter, output, and resource description fields are limited to 4096 characters
D. One account by default is limited to 20 stacks

13. A user has created a VPC with CIDR 20.0.0.0/16. The user has created one subnet with CIDR 20.0.0.0/16 in this VPC.The user is trying to create another subnet with the same VPC for CIDR 20.0.0.1/24. What will happen in this scenario?
A. The VPC will modify the first subnet CIDR automatically to allow the second subnet IP range
B. It is not possible to create a subnet with the same CIDR as VPC
C. The second subnet will be created
D. It will throw a CIDR overlaps error

14. A user is trying to understand the detailed CloudWatch monitoring concept. Which of the below mentioned services provides detailed monitoring with CloudWatch without charging the user extra?
A. AWS Auto Scaling
B. AWS Route 53
C. AWS EMR
D. AWS SNS

Explanation:
CloudWatch is used to monitor AWS as well as the custom services. It provides either basic or detailed
monitoring for the supported AWS products. In basic monitoring, a service sends data points to CloudWatch
every five minutes, while in detailed monitoring a service sends data points to CloudWatch every minute.
Services, such as RDS, ELB, OpsWorks, and Route 53 can provide the monitoring data every minute without
charging the user.

15. A user is configuring a CloudWatch alarm on RDS to receive a notification when the CPU utilization of RDS is higher than 50%. The user has setup an alarm when there is some inactivity on RDS, such as RDS unavailability. How can the user configure this?
A. Setup the notification when the CPU is more than 75% on RDS
B. Setup the notification when the state is Insufficient Data
C. Setup the notification when the CPU utilization is less than 10%
D. It is not possible to setup the alarm on RDS

16. You are managing a legacy application Inside VPC with hard coded IP addresses in its configuration. Which two mechanisms will allow the application to failover to new instances without the need for reconfiguration? (Choose two.)
A. Create an ELB to reroute traffic to a failover instance
B. Create a secondary ENI that can be moved to a failover instance
C. Use Route53 health checks to fail traffic over to a failover instance
D. Assign a secondary private IP address to the primary ENIO that can De moved to a failover instance

17. A user has two EC2 instances running in two separate regions. The user is running an internal memory management tool, which captures the data and sends it to CloudWatch in US East, using a CLI with the same namespace and metric. Which of the below mentioned options is true with respect to the above statement?
A. The setup will not work as CloudWatch cannot receive data across regions
B. CloudWatch will receive and aggregate the data based on the namespace and metric
C. CloudWatch will give an error since the data will conflict due to two sources
D. CloudWatch will take the data of the server, which sends the data first

18. You are currently hosting multiple applications in a VPC and have logged numerous port scans coming in from a specific IP address block. Your security team has requested that all access from the offending IP address block be denied tor then ext 24 hours. Which of the following is the best method to quickly and temporarily deny access from the specified IPaddress block?
A. Create an AD policy to modify Windows Firewall settings on all hosts in the VPC to deny access from the IP address block
B. Modify the Network ACLs associated with all public subnets in the VPC to deny access from the IP address block
C. Add a rule to all of the VPC 5 Security Groups to deny access from the IP address block
D. Modify the Windows Firewall settings on all Amazon Machine Images (AMIs) that your organization uses in that VPC to deny access from the IP address block

19. You are running a web-application on AWS consisting of the following components an Elastic Load Balancer (ELB) an Auto-Scaling Group of EC2 instances running Linux/PHP/Apache, and Relational DataBase Service (RDS) MySQL. Which security measures fall into AWS’s responsibility?
A. Protect the EC2 instances against unsolicited access by enforcing the principle of least-privilege access
B. Protect against IP spoofing or packet sniffing
C. Assure all communication between EC2 instances and ELB is encrypted
D. Install latest security patches on ELB. RDS and EC2 instances

20. You have been asked to automate many routine systems administrator backup and recovery activities. Your current plan is to leverage AWS-managed solutions as much as possible and automate the rest with the AWS CLI and scripts. Which task would be best accomplished with a script?
A. Creating daily EBS snapshots with a monthly rotation of snapshots
B. Creating daily RDS snapshots with a monthly rotation of snapshots
C. Automatically detect and stop unused or underutilized EC2 instances
D. Automatically add Auto Scaled EC2 instances to an Amazon Elastic Load Balancer

21. You have identified network throughput as a bottleneck on your m1.small EC2 instance when uploading data Into AmazonS3 In the same region. How do you remedy this situation?
A. Add an additional ENI
B. Change to a larger Instance
C. Use DirectConnect between EC2 and S3
D. Use EBS PIOPS on the local volume

22. Your team Is excited about the use of AWS because now they have access to programmable Infrastructure. You have been asked to manage your AWS infrastructure In a manner similar to the way you might manage application code. You want to be able to deploy exact copies of different versions of your infrastructure, stage changes into different environments, revert back to previous versions, and identify what versions are running at any particular time (development test QA. production). Which approach addresses this requirement?
A. Use cost allocation reports and AWS Opsworks to deploy and manage your infrastructure.
B. Use AWS CloudWatch metrics and alerts along with resource tagging to deploy and manage your infrastructure.
C. Use AWS Beanstalk and a version control system like GIT to deploy and manage your infrastructure.
D. Use AWS CloudFormation and a version control system like GIT to deploy and manage your infrastructure.

23. Your entire AWS infrastructure lives inside of one Amazon VPC. You have an Infrastructure monitoring application running on an Amazon instance in Availability Zone (AZ) A of the region, and another application instance running in AZB)The monitoring application needs to make use of ICMP ping to confirm network reachability of the instance hosting the application. Can you configure the security groups for these instances to only allow the ICMP ping to pass from the monitoring instance to the application instance and nothing else” If so how?
A. No. Two instances in two different AZ’s can’t talk directly to each other via ICMP ping as that protocol is not allowed across subnet (ie broadcast) boundaries.
B. Yes. Both the monitoring instance and the application instance have to be a part of the same security group, and that security group needs to allow inbound ICMP.
C. Yes. The security group for the monitoring instance needs to allow outbound ICMP and the application instance’s security group needs to allow Inbound ICMP.
D. Yes. Both the monitoring instance’s security group and the application instance’s security group need to allow both inbound and outbound ICMP ping packets since ICMP is not a connection-oriented protocol.

24. A user has created a VPC with the public subnet. The user has created a security group for that VPC. Which of the below mentioned statements is true when a security group is created?
A. It can connect to the AWS services, such as S3 and RDS by default
B. It will have all the inbound traffic by default
C. It will have all the outbound traffic by default
D. It will by default allow traffic to the internet gateway

25. A user has created a VPC with CIDR 20.0.0.0/24. The user has used all the IPs of CIDR and wants to increase the size of the VPC. The user has two subnets: public (20.0.0.0/28) and private (20.0.1.0/28). How can the user change the size of the VPC?
A. The user can delete all the instances of the subnet. Change the size of the subnets to 20.0.0.0/32 and 20.0.1.0/32, respectively. Then the user can increase the size of the VPC using CLI.
B. It is not possible to change the size of the VPC once it has been created.
C. The user can add a subnet with a higher range so that it will automatically increase the size of the VPC.
D. The user can delete the subnets first and then modify the size of the VPC.

26. A user has launched an RDS MySQL DB with the Multi AZ feature. The user has scheduled the scaling of instance storage during maintenance window. What is the correct order of events during maintenance window?1. Perform maintenance on standby 2. Promote standby to primary 3. Perform maintenance on original primary 4. Promote original master back as primary
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 2, 3, 1, 4

27. A user runs the command “dd if=/dev/zero of=/dev/xvdfbs=1M” on a fresh blank EBS volume attached to a Linux instance. Which of the below mentioned activities is the user performing with the command given above?
A. Creating a file system on the EBS volume
B. Mounting the device to the instance
C. Pre warming the EBS volume
D. Formatting the EBS volume

28. A sys admin is using server side encryption with AWS S3. Which of the below mentioned statements helps the user understand the S3 encryption functionality?
A. The server side encryption with the user supplied key works when versioning is enabled
B. The user can use the AWS console, SDK and APIs to encrypt or decrypt the content for server side encryption with the user supplied key
C. The user must send an AES-128 encrypted key
D. The user can upload his own encryption key to the S3 console

29. You run a web application where web servers on EC2 Instances are In an Auto Scaling group Monitoring over the last 6 months shows that 6 web servers are necessary to handle the minimum load During the day up to 12 servers are needed Five to six days per year, the number of web servers required might go up to 15. What would you recommend to minimize costs while being able to provide high availability?
A. 6 Reserved instances (heavy utilization). 6 Reserved instances {medium utilization), rest covered by On-Demand instances.
B. 6 Reserved instances (heavy utilization). 6 On-Demand instances, rest covered by Spot Instances.
C. 6 Reserved instances (heavy utilization). 6 Spot instances, rest covered by On-Demand instances.
D. 6 Reserved instances (heavy utilization). 6 Reserved instances (medium utilization) rest covered by Spot instances.

30. Which services allow the customer to retain full administrative privileges of the underlying EC2 instances? (Choose two.)
A. Amazon Elastic Map Reduce
B. Elastic Load Balancing
C. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
D. Amazon Elastic cache
E. Amazon Relational Database service

31. A user is configuring the Multi AZ feature of an RDS DB. The user came to know that this RDS DB does not use the AWS technology, but uses server mirroring to achieve HA. Which DB is the user using right now?
A. My SQL
B. Oracle
C. MS SQL
D. PostgreSQL

32. A user has enabled detailed CloudWatch monitoring with the AWS Simple Notification Service. Which of the below mentioned statements helps the user understand detailed monitoring better?
A. SNS will send data every minute after configuration
B. There is no need to enable since SNS provides data every minute
C. AWS CloudWatch does not support monitoring for SNS
D. SNS cannot provide data every minute

33. A user has created a public subnet with VPC and launched an EC2 instance within it. The user is trying to delete the subnet. What will happen in this scenario?
A. It will delete the subnet and make the EC2 instance as a part of the default subnet
B. It will not allow the user to delete the subnet until the instances are terminated
C. It will delete the subnet as well as terminate the instances
D. The subnet can never be deleted independently, but the user has to delete the VPC first

34. A user has launched an EC2 Windows instance from an instance store backed AMI. The user wants to convert the AMI to an EBS backed AMI. How can the user convert it?
A. Attach an EBS volume to the instance and unbundle all the AMI bundled data inside the EBS
B. A Windows based instance store backed AMI cannot be converted to an EBS backed AMI
C. It is not possible to convert an instance store backed AMI to an EBS backed AMI
D. Attach an EBS volume and use the copy command to copy all the ephermal content to the EBS Volume

35. A user has created an Auto Scaling group with default configurations from CLI. The user wants to setup the CloudWatch alarm on the EC2 instances, which are launched by the Auto Scaling group. The user has setup an alarm to monitor the CPU utilization every minute. Which of the below mentioned statements is true?
A. It will fetch the data at every minute but the four data points [corresponding to 4 minutes] will not have value since the EC2 basic monitoring metrics are collected every five minutes
B. It will fetch the data at every minute as detailed monitoring on EC2 will be enabled by the default launch configuration of Auto Scaling
C. The alarm creation will fail since the user has not enabled detailed monitoring on the EC2 instances
D. The user has to first enable detailed monitoring on the EC2 instances to support alarm monitoring at every minute

36. A user has configured an ELB to distribute the traffic among multiple instances. The user instances are facing some issues due to the back-end servers. Which of the below mentioned CloudWatch metrics helps the user understand the issue with the instances?
A. HTTPCode_Backend_3XX
B. HTTPCode_Backend_4XX
C. HTTPCode_Backend_2XX
D. HTTPCode_Backend_5XX

37. A user has created a VPC with public and private subnets using the VPC wizard. The VPC has CIDR 20.0.0.0/16. The private subnet uses CIDR 20.0.0.0/24. The NAT instance ID is i-a12345. Which of the below mentioned entries are required in the main route table attached with the private subnet to allow instances to connect with the internet?
A. Destination: 0.0.0.0/0 and Target: i-a12345
B. Destination: 20.0.0.0/0 and Target: 80
C. Destination: 20.0.0.0/0 and Target: i-a12345
D. Destination: 20.0.0.0/24 and Target: i-a12345

38. A user has created a VPC with CIDR 20.0.0.0/16 using the wizard. The user has created public and VPN only subnets along with hardware VPN access to connect to the user’s data centre. The user has not yet launched any instance as well as modified or deleted any setup. He wants to delete this VPC from the console. Will the console allow the user to delete the VPC?
A. Yes, the console will delete all the setups and also delete the virtual private gateway
B. No, the console will ask the user to manually detach the virtual private gateway first and then allow deleting the VPC
C. Yes, the console will delete all the setups and detach the virtual private gateway
D. No, since the NAT instance is running

39. A user has created a VPC with public and private subnets using the VPC Wizard. The VPC has CIDR 20.0.0.0/16. The private subnet uses CIDR 20.0.0.0/24. Which of the below mentioned entries are required in the main route table to allow the instances in VPC to communicate with each other?
A. Destination : 20.0.0.0/24 and Target : VPC
B. Destination : 20.0.0.0/16 and Target : ALL
C. Destination : 20.0.0.0/0 and Target : ALL
D. Destination : 20.0.0.0/16 and Target : Local

40. A root account owner has given full access of his S3 bucket to one of the IAM users using the bucket ACL. When the IAM user logs in to the S3 console, which actions can he perform?
A. He can just view the content of the bucket
B. He can do all the operations on the bucket
C. It is not possible to give access to an IAM user using ACL
D. The IAM user can perform all operations on the bucket using only API/SDK

41. A user has configured ELB with a TCP listener at ELB as well as on the back-end instances. The user wants to enable a proxy protocol to capture the source and destination IP information in the header. Which of the below mentioned statements helps the user understand a proxy protocol with TCP configuration?
A. If the end user is requesting behind a proxy server then the user should not enable a proxy protocol on ELB
B. ELB does not support a proxy protocol when it is listening on both the load balancer and the back-end instances
C. Whether the end user is requesting from a proxy server or directly, it does not make a difference for the proxy protocol
D. If the end user is requesting behind the proxy then the user should add the “isproxy” flag to the ELB Configuration

42. A user is trying to create a PIOPS EBS volume with 8 GB size and 200 IOPS. Will AWS create the volume?
A. Yes, since the ratio between EBS and IOPS is less than 30
B. No, since the PIOPS and EBS size ratio is less than 30
C. No, the EBS size is less than 10 GB
D. Yes, since PIOPS is higher than 100

43. A user is having data generated randomly based on a certain event. The user wants to upload that data to CloudWatch. It may happen that event may not have data generated for some period due to randomness. Which of the below mentioned options is a recommended option for this case?
A. For the period when there is no data, the user should not send the data at all
B. For the period when there is no data the user should send a blank value
C. For the period when there is no data the user should send the value as 0
D. The user must upload the data to CloudWatch as having no data for some period will cause an error at CloudWatch monitoring

44. A user is measuring the CPU utilization of a private data centre machine every minute. The machine provides the aggregate of data every hour, such as Sum of data”, “Min value”, “Max value, and “Number of Data points”. The user wants to send these values to CloudWatch. How can the user achieve this?
A. Send the data using the put-metric-data command with the aggregate-values parameter
B. Send the data using the put-metric-data command with the average-values parameter
C. Send the data using the put-metric-data command with the statistic-values parameter
D. Send the data using the put-metric-data command with the aggregate data parameter

45. A sysadmin has created the below mentioned policy on an S3 bucket named cloud academy. The bucket has both AWS.jpg and index.html objects. What does this policy define?“Statement”: [{“Sid”: “Stmt1388811069831”,“Effect”: “Allow”,“Principal”: { “AWS”: “*”},“Action”: [ “s3:GetObjectAcl”, “s3:ListBucket”, “s3:GetObject”],“Resource”: [ “arn:aws:s3:::cloudacademy/*.jpg]}]
A. It will make all the objects as well as the bucket public
B. It will throw an error for the wrong action and does not allow to save the policy
C. It will make the AWS.jpg object as public
D. It will make the AWS.jpg as well as the cloudacademy bucket as public

46. A user is planning to set up the Multi AZ feature of RDS. Which of the below mentioned conditions won’t take advantage of the Multi AZ feature?
A. Availability zone outage
B. A manual failover of the DB instance using Reboot with failover option
C. Region outage
D. When the user changes the DB instance’s server type

47. A user has created a VPC with CIDR 20.0.0.0/16 using the wizard. The user has created a public subnet CIDR(20.0.0.0/24) and VPN only subnets CIDR (20.0.1.0/24) along with the VPN gateway (vgw-12345) to connect to the user’s data centre. The user’s data centre has CIDR 172.28.0.0/12. The user has also setup a NAT instance (i-123456) to allow traffic to the internet from the VPN subnet. Which of the below mentioned options is not a valid entry for the main route table in this scenario?
A. Destination: 20.0.1.0/24 and Target: i-12345
B. Destination: 0.0.0.0/0 and Target: i-12345
C. Destination: 172.28.0.0/12 and Target: vgw-12345
D. Destination: 20.0.0.0/16 and Target: local

48. An organization has applied the below mentioned policy on an IAM group which has selected the IAM users. What entitlements do the IAM users avail with this policy?{“Version”: “2012-10-17”,“Statement”: [{“Effect”: “Allow”,“Action”: “*”,“Resource”: “*”} ] }
A. The policy is not created correctly. It will throw an error for wrong resource name.
B. The policy is for the group. Thus, the IAM user cannot have any entitlement to this.
C. It allows full access to all AWS services for the IAM users who are a part of this group.
D. If this policy is applied to the EC2 resource, the users of the group will have full access to the EC2 Resources.

49. A user has configured ELB with Auto Scaling. The user suspended the Auto Scaling AlarmNotification (which notifies Auto Scaling for CloudWatch alarms) process for a while. What will Auto Scaling do during this period?
A. AWS will not receive the alarms from CloudWatch
B. AWS will receive the alarms but will not execute the Auto Scaling policy
C. Auto Scaling will execute the policy but it will not launch the instances until the process is resumed
D. It is not possible to suspend the AlarmNotification process

50. An AWS account wants to be part of the consolidated billing of his organization’s payee account. How can the owner of that account achieve this?
A. The payee account has to request AWS support to link the other accounts with his account
B. The owner of the linked account should add the payee account to his master account list from the billing console
C. The payee account will send a request to the linked account to be a part of consolidated billing
D. The owner of the linked account requests the payee account to add his account to consolidated billing

51. An organization has created a Queue named “modularqueue” with SQS. The organization is not performing any operations such as SendMessage, ReceiveMessage, DeleteMessage, GetQueueAttributes, SetQueueAttributes,AddPermission, and RemovePermission on the queue. What can happen in this scenario?
A. AWS SQS sends notification after 15 days for inactivity on queue
B. AWS SQS can delete queue after 30 days without notification
C. AWS SQS marks queue inactive after 30 days
D. AWS SQS notifies the user after 2 weeks and deletes the queue after 3 weeks.

52. An organization has launched 5 instances: 2 for production and 3 for testing. The organization wants that one particular group of IAM users should only access the test instances and not the production ones. How can the organization set that as a part of the policy?
A. Launch the test and production instances in separate regions and allow region wise access to the group
B. Define the IAM policy which allows access based on the instance ID
C. Create an IAM policy with a condition which allows access to only small instances
D. Define the tags on the test and production servers and add a condition to the IAM policy which allows access to specific tags

53. A user is displaying the CPU utilization, and Network in and Network out CloudWatch metrics data of a single instance on the same graph. The graph uses one Y-axis for CPU utilization and Network in and another Y-axis for Network out. Since Network in is too high, the CPU utilization data is not visible clearly on graph to the user. How can the data be viewed better on the same graph?
A. It is not possible to show multiple metrics with the different units on the same graph
B. Add a third Y-axis with the console to show all the data in proportion
C. Change the axis of Network by using the Switch command from the graph
D. Change the units of CPU utilization so it can be shown in proportion with Network

54. A user has created a VPC with public and private subnets using the VPC wizard. Which of the below mentioned statements is not true in this scenario?
A. The VPC will create a routing instance and attach it with a public subnet
B. The VPC will create two subnets
C. The VPC will create one internet gateway and attach it to VPC
D. The VPC will launch one NAT instance with an elastic IP

55. A storage admin wants to encrypt all the objects stored in S3 using server side encryption. The user does not want to use the AES 256 encryption key provided by S3. How can the user achieve this?
A. The admin should upload his secret key to the AWS console and let S3 decrypt the objects.
B. The admin should use CLI or API to upload the encryption key to the S3 bucket. When making a call to the S3 API mention the encryption key URL in each request.
C. S3 does not support client supplied encryption keys for server side encryption.
D. The admin should send the keys and encryption algorithm with each API call.

56. When assessing an organization s use of AWS API access credentials which of the following three credentials should be evaluated? (Choose three.)
A. Key pairs
B. Console passwords
C. Access keys
D. Signing certificates
E. Security Group memberships

57. A user is sending the data to CloudWatch using the CloudWatch API. The user is sending data 90 minutes in the future. What will CloudWatch do in this case?
A. CloudWatch will accept the data
B. It is not possible to send data of the future
C. It is not possible to send the data manually to CloudWatch
D. The user cannot send data for more than 60 minutes in the future

58. A user has moved an object to Glacier using the life cycle rules. The user requests to restore the archive after 6 months. When the restore request is completed the user accesses that archive. Which of the below mentioned statements is not true in this condition?
A. The archive will be available as an object for the duration specified by the user during the restoration request
B. The restored object’s storage class will be RRS
C. The user can modify the restoration period only by issuing a new restore request with the updated period
D. The user needs to pay storage for both RRS (restored) and Glacier (Archive) Rates

59. A user has created a queue named “awsmodule” with SQS. One of the consumers of queue is down for 3 days and then becomes available. Will that component receive message from queue?
A. Yes, since SQS by default stores message for 4 days
B. No, since SQS by default stores message for 1 day only
C. No, since SQS sends message to consumers who are available that time
D. Yes, since SQS will not delete message until it is delivered to all consumers

60. A user is trying to understand the detailed CloudWatch monitoring concept. Which of the below mentioned services does not provide detailed monitoring with CloudWatch?
A. AWS EMR
B. AWS RDS
C. AWS ELB
D. AWS Route53

Explanation:
CloudWatch is used to monitor AWS as well as the custom services. It provides either basic or detailed
monitoring for the supported AWS products. In basic monitoring, a service sends data points to CloudWatch
every five minutes, while in detailed monitoring a service sends data points to CloudWatch every minute.
Services, such as RDS, EC2, Auto Scaling, ELB, and Route 53 can provide the monitoring data every minute.

61. A user has created an application which will be hosted on EC2. The application makes calls to DynamoDB to fetch certain data. The application is using the DynamoDB SDK to connect with from the EC2 instance. Which of the below mentioned statements is true with respect to the best practice for security in this scenario?
A. The user should attach an IAM role with DynamoDB access to the EC2 instance.
B. The user should create an IAM user with DynamoDB access and use its credentials within the application to connect with DynamoDB.
C. The user should create an IAM role, which has EC2 access so that it will allow deploying the application.
D. The user should create an IAM user with DynamoDB and EC2 access. Attach the user with the application so that it does not use the root account credentials.

62. A user has created a subnet in VPC and launched an EC2 instance within it. The user has not selected the option to assign the IP address while launching the instance. The user has 3 elastic IPs and is trying to assign one of the Elastic IPs to the VPC instance from the console. The console does not show any instance in the IP assignment screen. What is a possible reason that the instance is unavailable in the assigned IP console?
A. The IP address may be attached to one of the instances
B. The IP address belongs to a different zone than the subnet zone
C. The user has not created an internet gateway
D. The IP addresses belong to EC2 Classic; so they cannot be assigned to VPC

63. A user is trying to pre-warm a blank EBS volume attached to a Linux instance. Which of the below mentioned steps should be performed by the user?
A. There is no need to pre-warm an EBS volume
B. Contact AWS support to pre-warm
C. Unmount the volume before pre-warming
D. Format the device

64. A user has created a VPC with the public and private subnets using the VPC wizard. The VPC has CIDR 20.0.0.0/16.The public subnet uses CIDR 20.0.1.0/24. The user is planning to host a web server in the public subnet (port 80) and aDB server in the private subnet (port 3306). The user is configuring a security group for the public subnet (WebSecGrp)and the private subnet (DBSecGrp). Which of the below mentioned entries is required in the web server security group(WebSecGrp)?
A. Configure Destination as DB Security group ID (DbSecGrp. for port 3306 Outbound
B. 80 for Destination 0.0.0.0/0 Outbound
C. Configure port 3306 for source 20.0.0.0/24 InBound
D. Configure port 80 InBound for source 20.0.0.0/16

65. What are characteristics of Amazon S3? (Choose two.)
A. Objects are directly accessible via a URL
B. S3 should be used to host a relational database
C. S3 allows you to store objects or virtually unlimited size
D. S3 allows you to store virtually unlimited amounts of data
E. S3 offers Provisioned IOPS

66. A user has granted read/write permission of his S3 bucket using ACL. Which of the below mentioned options is a validID to grant permission to other AWS accounts (grantee) using ACL?
A. IAM User ID
B. S3 Secure ID
C. Access ID
D. Canonical user ID

67. A user has enabled versioning on an S3 bucket. The user is using server side encryption for data at Rest. If the user is supplying his own keys for encryption (SSE-C), which of the below mentioned statements is true?
A. The user should use the same encryption key for all versions of the same object
B. It is possible to have different encryption keys for different versions of the same object
C. AWS S3 does not allow the user to upload his own keys for server side encryption
D. The SSE-C does not work when versioning is enabled

68. A user has launched an EC2 instance from an instance store backed AMI. The user has attached an additional instance store volume to the instance. The user wants to create an AMI from the running instance. Will the AMI have the additional instance store volume data?
A. Yes, the block device mapping will have information about the additional instance store volume
B. No, since the instance store backed AMI can have only the root volume bundled
C. It is not possible to attach an additional instance store volume to the existing instance store backed AMI instance
D. No, since this is ephermal storage it will not be a part of the AMI

69. A user is trying to send custom metrics to CloudWatch using the PutMetricData APIs. Which of the below mentioned points should the user needs to take care while sending the data to CloudWatch?
A. The size of a request is limited to 8KB for HTTP GET requests and 40KB for HTTP POST requests
B. The size of a request is limited to 128KB for HTTP GET requests and 64KB for HTTP POST requests
C. The size of a request is limited to 40KB for HTTP GET requests and 8KB for HTTP POST requests
D. The size of a request is limited to 16KB for HTTP GET requests and 80KB for HTTP POST requests

http://docs.aws.amazon.com/sdkfornet1/latest/apidocs/html/M_Amazon_CloudWatch_AmazonCloudWatchClient_PutMetricData.htm

70. A user has created a subnet in VPC and launched an EC2 instance within it. The user has not selected the option to assign the IP address while launching the instance. Which of the below mentioned statements is true with respect to this scenario?
A. The instance will always have a public DNS attached to the instance by default
B. The user can directly attach an elastic IP to the instance
C. The instance will never launch if the public IP is not assigned
D. The user would need to create an internet gateway and then attach an elastic IP to the instance to connect from internet

71. An organization has configured Auto Scaling with ELB. There is a memory issue in the application which is causing CPUutilization to go above 90%. The higher CPU usage triggers an event for Auto Scaling as per the scaling policy. If the user wants to find the root cause inside the application without triggering a scaling activity, how can he achieve this?
A. Stop the scaling process until research is completed
B. It is not possible to find the root cause from that instance without triggering scaling
C. Delete Auto Scaling until research is completed
D. Suspend the scaling process until research is completed

72. A user is planning to schedule a backup for an EBS volume. The user wants security of the snapshot data. How can the user achieve data encryption with a snapshot?
A. Use encrypted EBS volumes so that the snapshot will be encrypted by AWS
B. While creating a snapshot select the snapshot with encryption
C. By default the snapshot is encrypted by AWS
D. Enable server side encryption for the snapshot using S3

73. A user is planning to scale up an application by 8 AM and scale down by 7 PM daily using Auto Scaling. What should the user do in this case?
A. Setup the scaling policy to scale up and down based on the CloudWatch alarms
B. The user should increase the desired capacity at 8 AM and decrease it by 7 PM manually
C. The user should setup a batch process which launches the EC2 instance at a specific time
D. Setup scheduled actions to scale up or down at a specific time

74. A user is trying to create an EBS volume with the highest PIOPS supported by EBS. What is the minimum size of EBS required to have the maximum IOPS?
A. 124
B. 150
C. 134
D. 128

Answer: An io1 volume can range in size from 4 GiB to 16 TiB and you can provision up to 20,000 IOPS per volume. The maximum ratio of provisioned IOPS to requested volume size (in GiB) is 50:1. For example, a 100 GiB volume can be provisioned with up to 5,000 IOPS. Any volume 400 GiB in size or greater allows provisioning up to the 20,000 IOPS maximum.

75. A user has launched an EBS backed EC2 instance in the US-East-1a region. The user stopped the instance and started it back after 20 days. AWS throws up an `InsufficientInstanceCapacity’ error. What can be the possible reason for this?
A. AWS does not have sufficient capacity in that availability zone
B. AWS zone mapping is changed for that user account
C. There is some issue with the host capacity on which the instance is launched
D. The user account has reached the maximum EC2 instance limit

76. A user has enabled versioning on an S3 bucket. The user is using server side encryption for data at rest. If the user is supplying his own keys for encryption (SSE-C), what is recommended to the user for the purpose of security?
A. The user should not use his own security key as it is not secure
B. Configure S3 to rotate the user’s encryption key at regular intervals
C. Configure S3 to store the user’s keys securely with SSL
D. Keep rotating the encryption key manually at the client side

77. A user has setup an EBS backed instance and attached 2 EBS volumes to it. The user has setup a CloudWatch alarm on each volume for the disk data. The user has stopped the EC2 instance and detached the EBS volumes. What will be the status of the alarms on the EBS volume?
A. OK
B. Insufficient Data
C. Alarm
D. The EBS cannot be detached until all the alarms are removed

78. A user has created a Cloudformation stack. The stack creates AWS services, such as EC2 instances, ELB, AutoScaling, and RDS. While creating the stack it created EC2, ELB and AutoScaling but failed to create RDS. What will Cloudformation do in this scenario?
A. Cloudformation can never throw an error after launching a few services since it verifies all the steps before launching
B. It will warn the user about the error and ask the user to manually create RDS
C. Rollback all the changes and terminate all the created services
D. It will wait for the user’s input about the error and correct the mistake after the input

79. An AWS root account owner is trying to create a policy to access RDS. Which of the below mentioned statements is true with respect to the above information?
A. Create a policy which allows the users to access RDS and apply it to the RDS instances
B. The user cannot access the RDS database if he is not assigned the correct IAM policy
C. The root account owner should create a policy for the IAM user and give him access to the RDS services
D. The policy should be created for the user and provide access for RDS
B is incorrect because we can add user in a group which have access RDS permission

80. The CFO of a company wants to allow one of his employees to view only the AWS usage report page. Which of the below mentioned IAM policy statements allows the user to have access to the AWS usage report page?
A. “Effect”: “Allow”, “Action”: [“Describe”], “Resource”: “Billing”
B. “Effect”: “Allow”, “Action”: [“AccountUsage], “Resource”: “*”
C. “Effect”: “Allow”, “Action”: [“aws-portal:ViewUsage”], “Resource”: “*”
D. “Effect”: “Allow”, “Action”: [“aws-portal: ViewBilling”], “Resource”: “*”
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/awsaccountbilling/latest/aboutv2/billing-permissions-ref.html#example-billing-view-reports

81. George has launched three EC2 instances inside the US-East-1a zone with his AWS account. Ray has launched two EC2 instances in the US-East-1a zone with his AWS account. Which of the below mention
ned statements will help George and Ray understand the availability zone (AZ) concept better?
A. The instances of George and Ray will be running in the same data centre
B. All the instances of George and Ray can communicate over a private IP with a minimal cost
C. All the instances of George and Ray can communicate over a private IP without any cost
D. The US-East-1a region of George and Ray can be different availability zones

82. A user has setup a custom application which generates a number in decimals. The user wants to track that number and setup the alarm whenever the number is above a certain limit. The application is sending the data to CloudWatch at regular intervals for this purpose. Which of the below mentioned statements is not true with respect to the above scenario?
A. The user can get the aggregate data of the numbers generated over a minute and send it to CloudWatch
B. The user has to supply the timezone with each data point
C. CloudWatch will not truncate the number until it has an exponent larger than 126 (i.e. 1 x 10^126)
D. The user can create a file in the JSON format with the metric name and value and supply it to CloudWatch

83. A root account owner is trying to understand the S3 bucket ACL. Which of the below mentioned options cannot be used to grant ACL on the object using the authorized predefined group?
A. Authenticated user group
B. All users group
C. Log Delivery Group
D. Canonical user group

84. A user has setup an Auto Scaling group. The group has failed to launch a single instance for more than 24 hours. What will happen to Auto Scaling in this condition?
A. Auto Scaling will keep trying to launch the instance for 72 hours
B. Auto Scaling will suspend the scaling process
C. Auto Scaling will start an instance in a separate region
D. The Auto Scaling group will be terminated automatically

85. A user had aggregated the CloudWatch metric data on the AMI ID. The user observed some abnormal behaviour of the CPU utilization metric while viewing the last 2 weeks of data. The user wants to share that data with his manager. How can the user achieve this easily with the AWS console?
A. The user can use the copy URL functionality of CloudWatch to share the exact details
B. The user can use the export data option from the CloudWatch console to export the current data point
C. The user has to find the period and data and provide all the aggregation information to the manager
D. The user can use the CloudWatch data copy functionality to copy the current data points

86. A user has launched an EC2 Windows instance from an instance store backed AMI. The user has also set the Instance initiated shutdown behavior to stop. What will happen when the user shuts down the OS?
A. It will not allow the user to shutdown the OS when the shutdown behaviour is set to Stop
B. It is not possible to set the termination behaviour to Stop for an Instance store backed AMI instance
C. The instance will stay running but the OS will be shutdown
D. The instance will be terminated

87. A user wants to upload a complete folder to AWS S3 using the S3 Management console. How can the user perform this activity?
A. Just drag and drop the folder using the flash tool provided by S3
B. Use the Enable Enhanced Folder option from the S3 console while uploading objects
C. The user cannot upload the whole folder in one go with the S3 management console
D. Use the Enable Enhanced Uploader option from the S3 console while uploading objects

88. A user has created a VPC with CIDR 20.0.0.0/16 with only a private subnet and VPN connection using the VPC wizard. The user wants to connect to the instance in a private subnet over SSH. How should the user define the security rule for SSH?
A. Allow Inbound traffic on port 22 from the user’s network
B. The user has to create an instance in EC2 Classic with an elastic IP and configure the security group of a private subnet to allow SSH from that elastic IP
C. The user can connect to a instance in a private subnet using the NAT instance
D. Allow Inbound traffic on port 80 and 22 to allow the user to connect to a private subnet over the Internet

89. A user is using the AWS EC2. The user wants to make so that when there is an issue in the EC2 server, such as instance status failed, it should start a new instance in the user’s private cloud. Which AWS service helps to achieve this automation?
A. AWS CloudWatch + Cloudformation
B. AWS CloudWatch + AWS AutoScaling + AWS ELB
C. AWS CloudWatch + AWS VPC
D. AWS CloudWatch + AWS SNS

Recheck:
90. A user has launched an EBS backed instance with EC2-Classic. The user stops and starts the instance. Which of the below mentioned statements is not true with respect to the stop/start action?
A. The instance gets new private and public IP addresses
B. The volume is preserved
C. The Elastic IP remains associated with the instance
D. The instance may run on a a new host computers

91. A sys admin has enabled logging on ELB. Which of the below mentioned fields will not be a part of the log file name?
A. Load Balancer IP
B. EC2 instance IP
C. S3 bucket name
D. Random string

92. A user is trying to create a PIOPS EBS volume with 4000 IOPS and 100 GB size. AWS does not allow the user to create this volume. What is the possible root cause for this?
A. The ratio between IOPS and the EBS volume is higher than 30
B. The maximum IOPS supported by EBS is 3000
C. The ratio between IOPS and the EBS volume is lower than 50
D. PIOPS is supported for EBS higher than 500 GB size

Now the ratio is 50:1 so we can create the volumn

93. An organization has configured two single availability zones. The Auto Scaling groups are configured in separate zones. The user wants to merge the groups such that one group spans across multiple zones. How can the user configure this?
A. Run the command as-join-auto-scaling-group to join the two groups
B. Run the command as-update-auto-scaling-group to configure one group to span across zones and delete the other group
C. Run the command as-copy-auto-scaling-group to join the two groups
D. Run the command as-merge-auto-scaling-group to merge the groups

94. An organization has configured Auto Scaling with ELB. One of the instance health check returns the status as Impaired to Auto Scaling. What will Auto Scaling do in this scenario?
A. Perform a health check until cool down before declaring that the instance has failed
B. Terminate the instance and launch a new instance
C. Notify the user using SNS for the failed state
D. Notify ELB to stop sending traffic to the impaired instance

95. An organization has setup Auto Scaling with ELB. Due to some manual error, one of the instances got rebooted. Thus, it failed the Auto Scaling health check. Auto Scaling has marked it for replacement. How can the system admin ensure that the instance does not get terminated?
A. Update the Auto Scaling group to ignore the instance reboot event
B. It is not possible to change the status once it is marked for replacement
C. Manually add that instance to the Auto Scaling group after reboot to avoid replacement
D. Change the health of the instance to healthy using the Auto Scaling commands

96. A user has configured ELB with Auto Scaling. The user suspended the Auto Scaling terminate process only for a while. What will happen to the availability zone rebalancing process (AZRebalance) during this period?
A. Auto Scaling will not launch or terminate any instances
B. Auto Scaling will allow the instances to grow more than the maximum size
C. Auto Scaling will keep launching instances till the maximum instance size
D. It is not possible to suspend the terminate process while keeping the launch active

97. A user has enabled termination protection on an EC2 instance. The user has also set Instance initiated shutdown behaviour to terminate. When the user shuts down the instance from the OS, what will happen?
A. The OS will shutdown but the instance will not be terminated due to protection
B. It will terminate the instance
C. It will not allow the user to shutdown the instance from the OS
D. It is not possible to set the termination protection when an Instance initiated shutdown is set to Terminate

98. A user has created a VPC with public and private subnets using the VPC wizard. The user has not launched any instance manually and is trying to delete the VPC. What will happen in this scenario?
A. It will not allow to delete the VPC as it has subnets with route tables
B. It will not allow to delete the VPC since it has a running route instance
C. It will terminate the VPC along with all the instances launched by the wizard
D. It will not allow to delete the VPC since it has a running NAT instance

99. A user has configured Auto Scaling with the minimum capacity as 2 and the desired capacity as 2. The user is trying to terminate one of the existing instance with the command:as-terminate-instance-in-auto-scaling-group–decrement-desired-capacity What will Auto Scaling do in this scenario?
A. Terminates the instance and does not launch a new instance
B. Terminates the instance and updates the desired capacity to 1
C. Terminates the instance and updates the desired capacity and minimum size to 1
D. Throws an error

100. A user has created an Auto Scaling group using CLI. The user wants to enable CloudWatch detailed monitoring for that group. How can the user configure this?
A. When the user sets an alarm on the Auto Scaling group, it automatically enables detail monitoring
B. By default detailed monitoring is enabled for Auto Scaling
C. Auto Scaling does not support detailed monitoring
D. Enable detail monitoring from the AWS console

101. A user has launched an EC2 instance. The instance got terminated as soon as it was launched. Which of the below mentioned options is not a possible reason for this?
A. The user account has reached the maximum EC2 instance limit.
B. The snapshot is corrupt.
C. The AMI is missing. It is the required part.
D. The user account has reached the maximum volume limit.

102. An organization is planning to create a user with IAM. They are trying to understand the limitations of IAM so that they can plan accordingly. Which of the below mentioned statements is not true with respect to the limitations of IAM?
A. One IAM user can be a part of a maximum of 5 groups
B. The organization can create 100 groups per AWS account
C. One AWS account can have a maximum of 5000 IAM users
D. One AWS account can have 250 roles

103. An application that you are managing has EC2 instances & Dynamo OB tables deployed to several AWS Regions. In order to monitor the performance of the application globally, you would like to see two graphs:1.) Avg CPU Utilization across all EC2 instances2.) Number of Throttled Requests for all DynamoDB tablesHow can you accomplish this?
A. Tag your resources with the application name, and select the tag name as the dimension in the Cloudwatch Management console to view the respective graphs.
B. Use the Cloud Watch CLI tools to pull the respective metrics from each regional endpoint. Aggregate the data offline & store it for graphing in CloudWatch.
C. Add SNMP traps to each instance and DynamoDB table. Leverage a central monitoring server to capture data from each instance and table. Put the aggregate data into Cloud Watch for graphing.

D. Add a CloudWatch agent to each instance and attach one to each DynamoDB table. When configuring the agent set the appropriate application name & view the graphs in CloudWatch.
104. A user has configured ELB with SSL using a security policy for secure negotiation between the client and load balancer. Which of the below mentioned SSL protocols is not supported by the security policy?
A. TLS 1.3
B. TLS 1.2
C. SSL 2.0
D. SSL 3.0

105. A user has created an EBS volume of 10 GB and attached it to a running instance. The user is trying to access EBS for first time. Which of the below mentioned options is the correct statement with respect to a first time EBS access?
A. The volume will show a size of 8 GB
B. The volume will show a loss of the IOPS performance the first time
C. The volume will be blank
D. If the EBS is mounted it will ask the user to create a file system

106. A sys admin is planning to subscribe to the RDS event notifications. For which of the below mentioned source categories the subscription cannot be configured?
A. DB security group
B. DB snapshot
C. DB options group
D. DB parameter group

Amazon RDS groups these events into categories that you can subscribe to so that you can be notified when an event in that category occurs. You can subscribe to an event category for a DB instance,DB cluster, DB snapshot, DB cluster snapshot, DB security group, or for a DB parameter group.

107. An organization wants to move to Cloud. They are looking for a secure encrypted database storage option. Which of the below mentioned AWS functionalities helps them to achieve this?
A. AWS MFA with EBS
B. AWS EBS encryption
C. Multi-tier encryption with Redshift
D. AWS S3 server side storage

108. A sys admin is maintaining an application on AWS. The application is installed on EC2 and user has configured ELB and Auto Scaling. Considering future load increase, the user is planning to launch new servers proactively so that they get registered with ELB. How can the user add these instances with Auto Scaling?
A. Increase the desired capacity of the Auto Scaling group
B. Increase the maximum limit of the Auto Scaling group
C. Launch an instance manually and register it with ELB on the fly
D. Decrease the minimum limit of the Auto Scaling group

109. Your EC2-Based Multi-tier application includes a monitoring instance that periodically makes application-level read only requests of various application components and if any of those fail more than three times 30 seconds calls CloudWatchlo fire an alarm, and the alarm notifies your operations team by email and SMS of a possible application health problem. However, you also need to watch the watcher-the monitoring instance itself-and be notified if it becomes unhealthy. Which of the following Is a simple way to achieve that goal?
A. Run another monitoring instance that pings the monitoring instance and fires a could watch alarm mat notifies your operations team should the primary monitoring instance become unhealthy.
B. Set a CloudWatch alarm based on EC2 system and instance status checks and have the alarm notify your operations team of any detected problem with the monitoring instance.
C. Set a CloudWatch alarm based on the CPU utilization of the monitoring instance and have the alarm notify your operations team if the CPU usage exceeds 50% few more than one minute, then have your monitoring application go into a CPU-bound loop should it detect any application problems.
D. Have the monitoring instances post messages to an SQS queue and then dequeue those messages on another instance should the queue cease to have new messages, the second instance should first terminate the original monitoring instance start another backup monitoring instance and assume the role of the previous monitoring instance and beginning adding messages to the SQS queue.

110. A user is publishing custom metrics to CloudWatch. Which of the below mentioned statements will help the user understand the functionality better?
A. The user can use the CloudWatch Import tool
B. The user should be able to see the data in the console after around 15 minutes
C. If the user is uploading the custom data, the user must supply the namespace, timezone, and metric name as part of the command
D. The user can view as well as upload data using the console, CLI and APIs

111. A user has created a VPC with a public subnet. The user has terminated all the instances which are part of the subnet. Which of the below mentioned statements is true with respect to this scenario?
A. The user cannot delete the VPC since the subnet is not deleted
B. All network interface attached with the instances will be deleted
C. When the user launches a new instance it cannot use the same subnet
D. The subnet to which the instances were launched with will be deleted

112. When an EC2 EBS-backed (EBS root) instance is stopped, what happens to the data on any ephemeral store volumes?
A. Data will be deleted and win no longer be accessible
B. Data Is automatically saved in an EBS volume
C. Data Is automatically saved as an E8S snapshot
D. Data is unavailable until the instance is restarted

113. A user has launched two EBS backed EC2 instances in the US-East-1a region. The user wants to change the zone of one of the instances. How can the user change it?
A. Stop one of the instances and change the availability zone
B. The zone can only be modified using the AWS CLI
C. From the AWS EC2 console, select the Actions – > Change zones and specify new zone
D. Create an AMI of the running instance and launch the instance in a separate AZ

114. A user has launched an EC2 instance from an instance store backed AMI. The infrastructure team wants to create an AMI from the running instance. Which of the below mentioned steps will not be performed while creating the AMI?
A. Define the AMI launch permissions
B. Upload the bundled volume
C. Register the AMI
D. Bundle the volume

115. A user has setup Auto Scaling with ELB on the EC2 instances. The user wants to configure that whenever the CPUutilization is below 10%, Auto Scaling should remove one instance. How can the user configure this?
A. The user can get an email using SNS when the CPU utilization is less than 10%. The user can use the desired capacity of Auto Scaling to remove the instance.
B. Use CloudWatch to monitor the data and Auto Scaling to remove the instances using scheduled actions.
C. Configure CloudWatch to send a notification to Auto Scaling Launch configuration when the CPU utilization is less than 10% and configure the Auto Scaling policy to remove the instance.
D. Configure CloudWatch to send a notification to the Auto Scaling group when the CPU. Utilization is less than 10% and configure the Auto Scaling policy to remove the instance.

116. A user has launched an ELB which has 5 instances registered with it. The user deletes the ELB by mistake. What willhappen to the instances?
A. ELB will ask the user whether to delete the instances or not
B. Instances will be terminated
C. ELB cannot be deleted if it has running instances registered with it
D. Instances will keep running

117. An organization’s security policy requires multiple copies of all critical data to be replicated across at least a primary and backup data center. The organization has decided to store some critical data on Amazon S3. Which option should you implement to ensure this requirement is met?
A. Use the S3 copy API to replicate data between two S3 buckets in different regions
B. You do not need to implement anything since S3 data is automatically replicated between regions
C. Use the S3 copy API to replicate data between two S3 buckets in different facilities within an AWS Region
D. You do not need to implement anything since S3 data is automatically replicated between multiple facilities within an AWS Region

118. A user is accessing RDS from an application. The user has enabled the Multi AZ feature with the MS SQL RDS DB. During a planned outage how will AWS ensure that a switch from DB to a standby replica will not affect access to the application?
A. RDS will have an internal IP which will redirect all requests to the new DB
B. RDS uses DNS to switch over to stand by replica for seamless transition
C. The switch over changes Hardware so RDS does not need to worry about access
D. RDS will have both the DBs running independently and the user has to manually switch over

119. A user wants to disable connection draining on an existing ELB. Which of the below mentioned statements helps the user disable connection draining on the ELB?
A. The user can only disable connection draining from CLI
B. It is not possible to disable the connection draining feature once enabled
C. The user can disable the connection draining feature from EC2 -> ELB console or from CLI
D. The user needs to stop all instances before disabling connection draining

120. A sys admin has created the below mentioned policy and applied to an S3 object named aws.jpg. The aws.jpg is inside a bucket named cloud academy. What does this policy define?“Statement”: [{“Sid”: “Stmt1388811069831”, “Effect”: “Allow”,“Principal”: { “AWS”: “*”},“Action”: [ “s3:GetObjectAcl”, “s3:ListBucket”, “s3:GetObject”],“Resource”: [ “arn:aws:s3:::cloudacademy/*.jpg”]}]
A. It is not possible to define a policy at the object level
B. It will make all the objects of the bucket cloudacademy as public
C. It will make the bucket cloudacademy as public
D. the aws.jpg object as public
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121. An organization has configured Auto Scaling for hosting their application. The system admin wants to understand the Auto Scaling health check process. If the instance is unhealthy, Auto Scaling launches an instance and terminates the unhealthy instance. What is the order execution?
A. Auto Scaling launches a new instance first and then terminates the unhealthy instance
B. Auto Scaling performs the launch and terminate processes in a random order
C. Auto Scaling launches and terminates the instances simultaneously
D. Auto Scaling terminates the instance first and then launches a new instance

122. A user has created a VPC with public and private subnets using the VPC wizard. Which of the below mentioned statements is true in this scenario?
A. The AWS VPC will automatically create a NAT instance with the micro size
B. VPC bounds the main route table with a private subnet and a custom route table with a public subnet
C. The user has to manually create a NAT instance
D. VPC bounds the main route table with a public subnet and a custom route table with a private subnet

123. An organization has created one IAM user and applied the below mentioned policy to the user. What entitlements do the IAM users avail with this policy?{“Version”: “2012-10-17”,“Statement”: [{“Effect”: “Allow”,“Action”: “ec2:Describe*”,“Resource”: “*”},{“Effect”: “Allow”“Action”: [“cloudwatch:ListMetrics”,“cloudwatch:GetMetricStatistics”,“cloudwatch:Describe*”],“Resource”: “*”},{“Effect”: “Allow”,“Action”: “autoscaling:Describe*”,“Resource”: “*”} ] }
A. The policy will allow the user to perform all read only activities on the EC2 services
B. The policy will allow the user to list all the EC2 resources except EBS
C. The policy will allow the user to perform all read and write activities on the EC2 services
D. The policy will allow the user to perform all read only activities on the EC2 services except load Balancing

124. A sys admin has created a shopping cart application and hosted it on EC2. The EC2 instances are running behind ELB. The admin wants to ensure that the end user request will always go to the EC2 instance where the user session has been created. How can the admin configure this?
A. Enable ELB cross zone load balancing
B. Enable ELB cookie setup
C. Enable ELB sticky session
D. Enable ELB connection draining

125. A user has configured a VPC with a new subnet. The user has created a security group. The user wants to configure that instances of the same subnet communicate with each other. How can the user configure this with the security group?
A. There is no need for a security group modification as all the instances can communicate with each other inside the same subnet
B. Configure the subnet as the source in the security group and allow traffic on all the protocols and ports
C. Configure the security group itself as the source and allow traffic on all the protocols and ports
D. The user has to use VPC peering to configure this

126. A user wants to find the particular error that occurred on a certain date in the AWS MySQL RDS DB. Which of the below mentioned activities may help the user to get the data easily?
A. It is not possible to get the log files for MySQL RDS
B. Find all the transaction logs and query on those records
C. Direct the logs to the DB table and then query that table
D. Download the log file to DynamoDB and search for the record

You can monitor the MySQL logs directly through the Amazon RDS console, Amazon RDS API, Amazon RDS CLI, or AWS SDKs. You can also access MySQL logs by directing the logs to a database table in the main database and querying that table. You can use the mysqlbinlog utility to download a binary log.

127. An organization has setup consolidated billing with 3 different AWS accounts. Which of the below mentioned advantages will organization receive in terms of the AWS pricing?
A. The consolidated billing does not bring any cost advantage for the organization
B. All AWS accounts will be charged for S3 storage by combining the total storage of each account
C. The EC2 instances of each account will receive a total of 750*3 micro instance hours free
D. The free usage tier for all the 3 accounts will be 3 years and not a single year

128. Your company Is moving towards tracking web page users with a small tracking Image loaded on each page Currently you are serving this image out of US-East, but are starting to get concerned about the time It takes to load the image for users on the west coast. What are the two best ways to speed up serving this image? (Choose two.)
A. Use Route 53’s Latency Based Routing and serve the image out of US-West-2 as well as US-East-1
B. Serve the image out through CloudFront
C. Serve the image out of S3 so that it isn’t being served oft of your web application tier
D. Use EBS PIOPs to serve the image faster out of your EC2 instances

I believe the best answer is A & B. Cloudfront gets the image closer to the user and Route53 ensures the best connection based on network latency. Option D does not address the issue.
C is not good option, because s3 is regional

129. A user has created a VPC with two subnets: one public and one private. The user is planning to run the patch update for the instances in the private subnet. How can the instances in the private subnet connect to the internet?
A. Use the internet gateway with a private IP
B. Allow outbound traffic in the security group for port 80 to allow internet updates
C. The private subnet can never connect to the internet
D. Use NAT with an elastic IP

130. A user is collecting 1000 records per second. The user wants to send the data to CloudWatch using the custom namespace. Which of the below mentioned options is recommended for this activity?
A. Aggregate the data with statistics, such as Min, max, Average, Sum and Sample data and send the data to CloudWatch
B. Send all the data values to CloudWatch in a single command by separating them with a comma. CloudWatch will parse automatically.
C. Create one csv file of all the data and send a single file to CloudWatch.
D. It is not possible to send all the data in one call. Thus, it should be sent one by one. CloudWatch will aggregate the data automatically.

131. A user has launched an EC2 instance store backed instance in the US-East-1a zone. The user created AMI #1 and copied it to the Europe region. After that, the user made a few updates to the application running in the US-East-1a zone. The user makes an AMI#2 after the changes. If the user launches a new instance in Europe from the AMI #1 copy, which of the below mentioned statements is true?
A. The new instance will have the changes made after the AMI copy as AWS just copies the reference of the original AMI during the copying. Thus, the copied AMI will have all the updated data.
B. The new instance will have the changes made after the AMI copy since AWS keeps updating the AMI.
C. It is not possible to copy the instance store backed AMI from one region to another.
D. The new instance in the EU region will not have the changes made after the AMI copy.

132. A user has created a VPC with CIDR 20.0.0.0/16. The user has created one subnet with CIDR 20.0.0.0/16 by mistake. The user is trying to create another subnet of CIDR 20.0.0.1/24. How can the user create the second subnet?
A. There is no need to update the subnet as VPC automatically adjusts the CIDR of the first subnet based on the second subnet’s CIDR
B. The user can modify the first subnet CIDR from the console
C. It is not possible to create a second subnet as one subnet with the same CIDR as the VPC has been created
D. The user can modify the first subnet CIDR with AWS CLI

133. A user is trying to understand the ACL and policy for an S3 bucket. Which of the below mentioned policy permissions is equivalent to the WRITE ACL on a bucket?
A. s3:GetObjectAcl
B. s3:GetObjectVersion
C. s3:ListBucketVersions
D. s3:DeleteObject

WRITE: Allows grantee to create, overwrite, and delete any object in the bucket
s3:PutObject and s3:DeleteObject.
In addition, when the grantee is the bucket owner, granting WRITE permission in a bucket ACL allows the s3:DeleteObjectVersion action to be performed on any version in that bucket.

134. A user has developed an application which is required to send the data to a NoSQL database. The user wants to decouple the data sending such that the application keeps processing and sending data but does not wait for an acknowledgement of DB. Which of the below mentioned applications helps in this scenario?
A. AWS Simple Notification Service
B. AWS Simple Workflow
C. AWS Simple Queue Service
D. AWS Simple Query Service

135. Which of the following statements about this S3 bucket policy is true?
{
“Id”: “IPAllowPolicy”
“Statement”:[
{
“Sid”: “IPAllow”,
“Action”: “s3”,
“Effect”: “Allow”,
“Resource”: “arn:aws:s3:::mybucket/*,
“Condition”: {
“IPAddress”: {
“aws:SourceIP”: “192.168.100.0/24”
},
“NotipAddress”: {
“aws:SourceIp”: “192.168.100.188/32
}
},
“Principal”: {
“AWS”: {
“*”
]
}
}
]
}
A. Denies the server with the IP address 192 168 100 0 full access to the “mybucket” bucket
B. Denies the server with the IP address 192 168 100 188 full access to the “mybucket” bucket
C. Grants all the servers within the 192 168 100 0/24 subnet full access to the “mybucket” bucket
D. Grants all the servers within the 192 168 100 188/32 subnet full access to the “mybucket” bucket

136. A user is trying to connect to a running EC2 instance using SSH. However, the user gets a connection time out error. Which of the below mentioned options is not a possible reason for rejection?
A. The access key to connect to the instance is wrong
B. The security group is not configured properly
C. The private key used to launch the instance is not correct
D. The instance CPU is heavily loaded

137. A user has enabled the Multi AZ feature with the MS SQL RDS database server. Which of the below mentioned statements will help the user understand the Multi AZ feature better?
A. In a Multi AZ, AWS runs two DBs in parallel and copies the data asynchronously to the replica copy
B. In a Multi AZ, AWS runs two DBs in parallel and copies the data synchronously to the replica copy
C. In a Multi AZ, AWS runs just one DB but copies the data synchronously to the standby replica copy
D. AWS MS SQL does not support the Multi AZ feature

138. A user is planning to setup notifications on the RDS DB for a snapshot. Which of the below mentioned event categories is not supported by RDS for this snapshot source type?
A. Backup
B. Creation
C. Deletion
D. Restoration

139. A sys admin has enabled a log on ELB. Which of the below mentioned activities are not captured by the log?
A. Response processing time
B. Front end processing time
C. Backend processing time
D. Request processing time

140. A user has created a VPC with CIDR 20.0.0.0/16. The user has created public and VPN only subnets along with hardware VPN access to connect to the user’s datacenter. The user wants to make so that all traffic coming to the public subnet follows the organization’s proxy policy. How can the user make this happen?
A. Setting up a NAT with the proxy protocol and configure that the public subnet receives traffic from NAT
B. Setting up a proxy policy in the internet gateway connected with the public subnet
C. It is not possible to setup the proxy policy for a public subnet
D. Setting the route table and security group of the public subnet which receives traffic from a virtual private gateway

141. You are tasked with the migration of a highly trafficked Node JS application to AWS. In order to comply with organizational standards Chef recipes must be used to configure the application servers that host this application and to support application lifecycle events. Which deployment option meets these requirements while minimizing administrative burden?
A. Create a new stack within Opsworks add the appropriate layers to the stack and deploy the application.
B. Create a new application within Elastic Beanstalk and deploy this application to a new environment.
C. Launch a Mode JS server from a community AMI and manually deploy the application to the launched EC2 instance.
D. Launch and configure Chef Server on an EC2 instance and leverage the AWS CLI to launch application servers and configure those instances using Chef.

142. A user has provisioned 2000 IOPS to the EBS volume. The application hosted on that EBS is experiencing less IOPS than provisioned. Which of the below mentioned options does not affect the IOPS of the volume?
A. The application does not have enough IO for the volume
B. The instance is EBS optimized
C. The EC2 instance has 10 Gigabit Network connectivity
D. The volume size is too large

143. Your organization’s security policy requires that all privileged users either use frequently rotated passwords or one-time access credentials in addition to username/password. Which two of the following options would allow an organization to enforce this policy for AWS users? (Choose two.)
A. Configure multi-factor authentication for privileged 1AM users
B. Create IAM users for privileged accounts
C. Implement identity federation between your organization’s Identity provider leveraging the 1AM Security Token Service
D. Enable the IAM single-use password policy option for privileged users

144. A user has created a mobile application which makes calls to DynamoDB to fetch certain data. The application is using the DynamoDB SDK and root account access/secret access key to connect to DynamoDB from mobile. Which of the below mentioned statements is true with respect to the best practice for security in this scenario?
A. The user should create a separate IAM user for each mobile application and provide DynamoDB access with it.
B. The user should create an IAM role with DynamoDB and EC2 access. Attach the role with EC2 and route all calls from the mobile through EC2.
C. The application should use an IAM role with web identity federation which validates calls to DynamoDB with identity providers, such as Google, Amazon, and Facebook.
D. Create an IAM Role with DynamoDB access and attach it with the mobile application.

145. Which of the following requires a custom CloudWatch metric to monitor?
A. Data transfer of an EC2 instance
B. Disk usage activity of an EC2 instance
C. Memory Utilization of an EC2 instance
D. CPU Utilization of an EC2mstance

146. You are creating an Auto Scaling group whose Instances need to insert a custom metric into CloudWatch. Which method would be the best way to authenticate your CloudWatch PUT request?
A. Create an IAM role with the Put MetricData permission and modify the Auto Scaling launch configuration to launch instances in that role
B. Create an IAM user with the PutMetricData permission and modify the Auto Scaling launch configuration to inject the userscredentials into the instance User Data
C. Modify the appropriate Cloud Watch metric policies to allow the Put MetricData permission to instances from the Auto Scaling group
D. Create an IAM user with the PutMetricData permission and put the credentials in a private repository and have applications on the server pull the credentials as needed

147. A user has scheduled the maintenance window of an RDS DB on Monday at 3 AM. Which of the below mentioned events may force to take the DB instance offline during the maintenance window?
A. Enabling Read Replica
B. Making the DB Multi AZ
C. DB password change
D. Security patching

Explanation:
Amazon RDS performs maintenance on the DB instance during a user-definable maintenance window. The system may be offline or experience lower performance during that window. The only maintenance events that may require RDS to make the DB instance offline are: Scaling compute operations Software patching. Required software patching is automatically scheduled only for patches that are security and durability related. Such patching occurs infrequently (typically once every few months. and seldom requires more than a fraction of the maintenance window.

148. A user runs the command “dd if=/dev/xvdf of=/dev/null bs=1M” on an EBS volume created from a snapshot and attached to a Linux instance. Which of the below mentioned activities is the user performing with the step given above?
A. Pre warming the EBS volume
B. Initiating the device to mount on the EBS volume
C. Formatting the volume
D. Copying the data from a snapshot to the device

Use the dd or fio utilities to read all of the blocks on the device (pre warm). The dd command is installed by default on Linux systems, but fio is considerably faster because it allows multi-threaded reads.

149. Which two AWS services provide out-of-the-box user configurable automatic backup-as-a-service and backup rotation options? (Choose two.)
A. Amazon S3
B. Amazon RDS
C. Amazon EBS
D. Amazon Red shift

150. A user has launched an EC2 instance and deployed a production application in it. The user wants to prohibit any mistakes from the production team to avoid accidental termination. How can the user achieve this?
A. The user can the set DisableApiTermination attribute to avoid accidental termination
B. It is not possible to avoid accidental termination
C. The user can set the Deletion termination flag to avoid accidental termination
D. The user can set the InstanceInitiatedShutdownBehavior flag to avoid accidental termination

151. An admin is planning to monitor the ELB. Which of the below mentioned services does not help the admin capture the monitoring information about the ELB activity?
A. ELB Access logs
B. ELB health check
C. CloudWatch metrics
D. ELB API calls with CloudTrail

152. What would happen to an RDS (Relational Database Service) multi-Availability Zone deployment of the primary DB instance fails?
A. The IP of the primary DB instance is switched to the standby OB instance
B. The RDS (Relational Database Service) DB instance reboots
C. A new DB instance is created in the standby availability zone
D. The canonical name record (CNAME) is changed from primary to standby

153. A customer has a web application that uses cookie Based sessions to track logged in users It Is deployed on AWS using ELB and Auto Scaling. The customer observes that when load increases. Auto Scaling launches new Instances but the load on the easting Instances does not decrease, causing all existing users to have a sluggish experience. Which two answer choices independently describe a behavior that could be the cause of the sluggish user experience? (Choose two.)
A. ELB’s normal behavior sends requests from the same user to the same backend instance.
B. ELB’s behavior when sticky sessions are enabled causes ELB to send requests in the same session to the same backend instance.
C. A faulty browser is not honoring the TTL of the ELB DNS name.
D. The web application uses long polling such as comet or web sockets. Thereby keeping a connection open to a web server for a long time.

154. A user has launched an EBS backed EC2 instance. What will be the difference while performing the restart or stop/start options on that instance?
A. For restart it does not charge for an extra hour, while every stop/start it will be charged as a separate hour
B. Every restart is charged by AWS as a separate hour, while multiple start/stop actions during a single hour will be counted as a single hour
C. For every restart or start/stop it will be charged as a separate hour
D. For restart it charges extra only once, while for every stop/start it will be charged as a separate hour

155. An organization (Account ID 123412341234) has attached the below mentioned IAM policy to a user. What does this policy statement entitle the user to perform?{“Version”: “2012-10-17”,“Statement”: [{“Sid”: “AllowUsersAllActionsForCredentials”,“Effect”: “Allow”,“Action”: [“iam:*LoginProfile”,“iam:*AccessKey*”,“iam:*SigningCertificate*”],“Resource”: [“arn:aws:iam:: 123412341234:user/${aws:username}”]}]}
A. The policy allows the IAM user to modify all IAM user’s credentials using the console, SDK, CLI or APIs
B. The policy will give an invalid resource error
C. The policy allows the IAM user to modify all credentials using only the console
D. The policy allows the user to modify all IAM user’s password, sign in certificates and access keys using only CLI, SDK or APIs

A is incorrect because credential may be Key pair, we cannot modify the key pair

156. When creation of an EBS snapshot Is initiated but not completed the EBS volume?
A. Cannot De detached or attached to an EC2 instance until me snapshot completes
B. Can be used in read-only mode while me snapshot is in progress
C. Can be used while me snapshot Is in progress
D. Cannot be used until the snapshot completes

157. A user is trying to connect to a running EC2 instance using SSH. However, the user gets a Host key not found error. Which of the below mentioned options is a possible reason for rejection?
A. The user has provided the wrong user name for the OS login
B. The instance CPU is heavily loaded
C. The security group is not configured properly
D. The access key to connect to the instance is wrong

158. A user has setup a web application on EC2. The user is generating a log of the application performance at every second. There are multiple entries for each second. If the user wants to send that data to CloudWatch every minute, what should he do?
A. The user should send only the data of the 60th second as CloudWatch will map the receive data timezone with the sent data timezone
B. It is not possible to send the custom metric to CloudWatch every minute
C. Give CloudWatch the Min, Max, Sum, and SampleCount of a number of every minute
D. Calculate the average of one minute and send the data to CloudWatch

159. A user is using a small MySQL RDS DB. The user is experiencing high latency due to the Multi AZ feature. Which of the below mentioned options may not help the user in this situation?
A. Schedule the automated back up in non-working hours
B. Use a large or higher size instance
C. Use PIOPS
D. Take a snapshot from standby Replica

160. A user has setup an RDS DB with Oracle. The user wants to get notifications when someone modifies the security group of that DB. How can the user configure that?
A. It is not possible to get the notifications on a change in the security group
B. Configure SNS to monitor security group changes
C. Configure event notification on the DB security group
D. Configure the CloudWatch alarm on the DB for a change in the security group

http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonRDS/latest/UserGuide/USER_Events.html

161. A user has launched an RDS postgreSQL DB with AWS. The user did not specify the maintenance window during creation. The user has configured RDS to update the DB instance type from micro to large. If the user wants to have it during the maintenance window, what will AWS do?
A. AWS will not allow to update the DB until the maintenance window is configured
B. AWS will select the default maintenance window if the user has not provided it
C. AWS will ask the user to specify the maintenance window during the update
D. It is not possible to change the DB size from micro to large with RDS

162. When preparing for a compliance assessment of your system built inside of AWS. What are three best-practices for you to prepare for an audit? (Choose three.)
A. Gather evidence of your IT operational controls
B. Request and obtain applicable third-party audited AWS compliance reports and certifications
C. Request and obtain a compliance and security tour of an AWS data center for a pre-assessment security review
D. Request and obtain approval from AWS to perform relevant network scans and in-depth penetration tests of your system’s Instances and endpoints
E. Schedule meetings with AWS’s third-party auditors to provide evidence of AWS compliance that maps to your control objectives

163. A user has created a VPC with CIDR 20.0.0.0/16 using the wizard. The user has created a public subnet CIDR(20.0.0.0/24) and VPN only subnets CIDR (20.0.1.0/24) along with the VPN gateway (vgw-12345) to connect to the user’s data centre. Which of the below mentioned options is a valid entry for the main route table in this scenario?
A. Destination: 20.0.0.0/24 and Target: vgw-12345
B. Destination: 20.0.0.0/16 and Target: ALL
C. Destination: 20.0.1.0/16 and Target: vgw-12345
D. Destination: 0.0.0.0/0 and Target: vgw-12345

164. You have set up Individual AWS accounts for each project. You have been asked to make sure your AWS Infrastructure costs do not exceed the budget set per project for each month. Which of the following approaches can help ensure that you do not exceed the budget each month?
A. Consolidate your accounts so you have a single bill for all accounts and projects.
B. Set up auto scaling with CloudWatch alarms using SNS to notify you when you are running too many Instances in a given account.
C. Set up CloudWatch billing alerts for all AWS resources used by each project, with a notification occurring when the amount for each resource tagged to a particular project matches the budget allocated to the project.
D. Set up CloudWatch billing alerts for all AWS resources used by each account, with email notifications when it hits 50%. 80% and 90% of its budgeted monthly spend.

C would inform you about the resources when the budget is reached, but D would warn you well in advance, in fact 3 reminders, so that you can take preventive action, BEFORE the budget is reached.

165. A user is planning to setup infrastructure on AWS for the Christmas sales. The user is planning to use Auto Scaling based on the schedule for proactive scaling. What advise would you give to the user?
A. It is good to schedule now because if the user forgets later on it will not scale up
B. The scaling should be setup only one week before Christmas
C. Wait till end of November before scheduling the activity
D. It is not advisable to use scheduled based scaling

You can create a maximum of 125 scheduled actions per Auto Scaling group

166. A user has deployed an application on an EBS backed EC2 instance. For a better performance of application, it requires dedicated EC2 to EBS traffic. How can the user achieve this?
A. Launch the EC2 instance as EBS dedicated with PIOPS EBS
B. Launch the EC2 instance as EBS enhanced with PIOPS EBS
C. Launch the EC2 instance as EBS provisioned with PIOPS EBS
D. Launch the EC2 instance as EBS optimized with PIOPS EBS

167. A sysadmin has created the below mentioned policy on an S3 bucket named cloudacademy. What does this policy define?
“Statement”: [{“Sid”: “Stmt1388811069831”,“Effect”: “Allow”,“Principal”: { “AWS”: “*”},“Action”: [ “s3:GetObjectAcl”, “s3:ListBucket”],“Resource”: [ “arn:aws:s3:::cloudacademy]}]
A. It will make the cloudacademy bucket as well as all its objects as public
B. It will allow everyone to view the ACL of the bucket
C. It will give an error as no object is defined as part of the policy while the action defines the rule about the object
D. It will make the cloudacademy bucket as public

Bucket policy only is not used for setting permission on bucket, it is used to set permissions for object inside them, so we need define for object. Eg: cloudacademy/*
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168. What is a placement group?
A. A collection of Auto Scaling groups in the same Region
B. Feature that enables EC2 instances to interact with each other via nigh bandwidth, low latency connections
C. A collection of Elastic Load Balancers in the same Region or Availability Zone
D. A collection of authorized Cloud Front edge locations for a distribution

169. A user is using Cloudformation to launch an EC2 instance and then configure an application after the instance is launched. The user wants the stack creation of ELB and AutoScaling to wait until the EC2 instance is launched and configured properly. How can the user configure this?
A. It is not possible that the stack creation will wait until one service is created and launched
B. The user can use the HoldCondition resource to wait for the creation of the other dependent resources
C. The user can use the DependentCondition resource to hold the creation of the other dependent resources
D. The user can use the WaitCondition resource to hold the creation of the other dependent resources

http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSCloudFormation/latest/UserGuide/using-cfn-waitcondition.html

170. You need to design a VPC for a web-application consisting of an Elastic Load Balancer (ELB). A fleet of web/application servers, and an RDS database. The entire Infrastructure must be distributed over 2 availability zones. Which VPC configuration works while assuring the database is not available from the Internet?
A. One public subnet for ELB one public subnet for the web-servers, and one private subnet for the database
B. One public subnet for ELB two private subnets for the web-servers, two private subnets for RDS
C. Two public subnets for ELB two private subnets for the web-servers and two private subnets for RDS
D. Two public subnets for ELB two public subnets for the web-servers, and two public subnets for RDS

When you create a load balancer, you must add one or more public subnets to the load balancer. If your instances are in private subnets, create public subnets in the same Availability Zones as the subnets with your instances; you will add these public subnets to the load balancer.

171. A user has configured an HTTPS listener on an ELB. The user has not configured any security policy which can help to negotiate SSL between the client and ELB. What will ELB do in this scenario?
A. By default ELB will select the first version of the security policy
B. By default ELB will select the latest version of the policy
C. ELB creation will fail without a security policy
D. It is not required to have a security policy since SSL is already installed

172. A user has a weighing plant. The user measures the weight of some goods every 5 minutes and sends data to AWSCloudWatch for monitoring and tracking. Which of the below mentioned parameters is mandatory for the user to include in the request list?
A. Value
B. Namespace
C. Metric Name
D. Timezone

173. A user has setup a CloudWatch alarm on the EC2 instance for CPU utilization. The user has setup to receive a notification on email when the CPU utilization is higher than 60%. The user is running a virus scan on the same instance at a particular time. The user wants to avoid receiving an email at this time. What should the user do?
A. Remove the alarm
B. Disable the alarm for a while using CLI
C. Modify the CPU utilization by removing the email alert
D. Disable the alarm for a while using the console

174. When an EC2 instance that is backed by an S3-based AMI Is terminated, what happens to the data on me root volume?
A. Data is automatically saved as an E8S volume.
B. Data is automatically saved as an ESS snapshot.
C. Data is automatically deleted.
D. Data is unavailable until the instance is restarted.

175. A user has configured ELB with three instances. The user wants to achieve High Availability as well as redundancy with ELB. Which of the below mentioned AWS services helps the user achieve this for ELB?
A. Route 53
B. AWS Mechanical Turk
C. Auto Scaling
D. AWS EMR
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176. An organization has setup multiple IAM users. The organization wants that each IAM user accesses the IAM console only within the organization and not from outside. How can it achieve this?
A. Create an IAM policy with the security group and use that security group for AWS console login
B. Create an IAM policy with a condition which denies access when the IP address range is not from the organization
C. Configure the EC2 instance security group which allows traffic only from the organization’s IP range
D. Create an IAM policy with VPC and allow a secure gateway between the organization and AWS Console

Security group only denies access to Instance or some resource which are attached

177. A user has configured Elastic Load Balancing by enabling a Secure Socket Layer (SSL) negotiation configuration known as a Security Policy. Which of the below mentioned options is not part of this secure policy while negotiating the SSLconnection between the user and the client?
A. SSL Protocols
B. Client Order Preference
C. SSL Ciphers
D. Server Order Preference

http://docs.aws.amazon.com/elasticloadbalancing/latest/classic/elb-security-policy-table.html

178. You are attempting to connect to an instance in Amazon VPC without success. You have already verified that the VPC has an Internet Gateway (IGW) the instance has an associated Elastic IP (EIP) and correct security group rules are in place. Which VPC component should you evaluate next?
A. The configuration of a MAT instance
B. The configuration of the Routing Table
C. The configuration of the internet Gateway (IGW)
D. The configuration of SRC’DST checking

179. You have a web-style application with a stateless but CPU and memory-intensive web tier running on a cc2 8xlarge EC2instance inside of a VPC. The instance when under load is having problems returning requests within the SLA as defined by your business The application maintains its state in a DynamoDB table, but the data tier is properly provisioned and responses are consistently fast. How can you best resolve the issue of the application responses not meeting your SLA?
A. Add another cc2 8xlarge application instance, and put both behind an Elastic Load Balancer
B. Move the cc2 8xlarge to the same Availability Zone as the DynamoDB table
C. Cache the database responses in ElastiCache for more rapid access
D. Move the database from DynamoDB to RDS MySQL in scale-out read-replica configuration

Under load: đang tải

180. An organization (account ID 123412341234) has configured the IAM policy to allow the user to modify his credentials.What will the below mentioned statement allow the user to perform?{“Version”: “2012-10-17”,“Statement”: [{“Effect”: “Allow”,“Action”: [“iam:AddUserToGroup”,“iam:RemoveUserFromGroup”,“iam:GetGroup”],“Resource”: “arn:aws:iam:: 123412341234:group/TestingGroup”}]
A. The IAM policy will throw an error due to an invalid resource name
B. The IAM policy will allow the user to subscribe to any IAM group
C. Allow the IAM user to update the membership of the group called TestingGroup
D. Allow the IAM user to delete the TestingGroup

181. A user has configured ELB with two EBS backed instances. The user has stopped the instances for 1 week to save costs.The user restarts the instances after 1 week. Which of the below mentioned statements will help the user to understandthe ELB and instance registration better?
A. There is no way to register the stopped instances with ELB
B. The user cannot stop the instances if they are registered with ELB
C. If the instances have the same Elastic IP assigned after reboot they will be registered with ELB
D. The instances will automatically get registered with ELB

182. A user is using the AWS SQS to decouple the services. Which of the below mentioned operations is not supported bySQS?
A. SendMessageBatch
B. DeleteMessageBatch
C. CreateQueue
D. DeleteMessageQueue

183. A user has launched a Windows based EC2 instance. However, the instance has some issues and the user wants to check the log. When the user checks the Instance console output from the AWS console, what will it display?
A. All the event logs since instance boot
B. The last 10 system event log error
C. The Windows instance does not support the console output
D. The last three system events’ log errors

184. A user is planning to evaluate AWS for their internal use. The user does not want to incur any charge on his account during the evaluation. Which of the below mentioned AWS services would incur a charge if used?
A. AWS S3 with 1 GB of storage
B. AWS micro instance running 24 hours daily
C. AWS ELB running 24 hours a day
D. AWS PIOPS volume of 10 GB size

Explanation:
AWS is introducing a free usage tier for one year to help the new AWS customers get started in Cloud. The free tier can be used for anything that the user wants to run in the Cloud. AWS offers a handful of AWS services as a part of this which includes 750 hours of free micro instances and 750 hours of ELB. It includes the AWS S3 of 5 GB and AWS EBS general purpose volume upto 30 GB. PIOPS is not part of free usage tier.

185. An organization is planning to create 5 different AWS accounts considering various security requirements. The organization wants to use a single payee account by using the consolidated billing option. Which of the below mentioned statements is true with respect to the above information?
A. Master (Payee) account will get only the total bill and cannot see the cost incurred by each account
B. Master (Payee) account can view only the AWS billing details of the linked accounts
C. It is not recommended to use consolidated billing since the payee account will have access to the linked accounts
D. Each AWS account needs to create an AWS billing policy to provide permission to the payee account

186. An organization is planning to use AWS for their production roll out. The organization wants to implement automation for deployment such that it will automatically create a LAMP stack, download the latest PHP installable from S3 and set up the ELB. Which of the below mentioned AWS services meets the requirement for making an orderly deployment of thesoftware?
A. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
B. AWS Cloudfront
C. AWS Cloudformation
D. AWS DevOps

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187. An organization has created 50 IAM users. The organization has introduced a new policy which will change the access of an IAM user. How can the organization implement this effectively so that there is no need to apply the policy at the individual user level?
A. Use the IAM groups and add users as per their role to different groups and apply policy to group
B. The user can create a policy and apply it to multiple users in a single go with the AWS CLI
C. Add each user to the IAM role as per their organization role to achieve effective policy setup
D. Use the IAM role and implement access at the role level

188. A user has launched an EC2 instance from an instance store backed AMI. If the user restarts the instance, what will happen to the ephermal storage data?
A. All the data will be erased but the ephermal storage will stay connected
B. All data will be erased and the ephermal storage is released
C. It is not possible to restart an instance launched from an instance store backed AMI
D. The data is preserved

189. A user is trying to save some cost on the AWS services. Which of the below mentioned options will not help him save cost?
A. Delete the unutilized EBS volumes once the instance is terminated
B. Delete the AutoScaling launch configuration after the instances are terminated
C. Release the elastic IP if not required once the instance is terminated
D. Delete the AWS ELB after the instances are terminated

190. George has shared an EC2 AMI created in the US East region from his AWS account with Stefano. George copies the same AMI to the US West region. Can Stefano access the copied AMI of George’s account from the US West region?
A. No, copy AMI does not copy the permission
B. It is not possible to share the AMI with a specific account
C. Yes, since copy AMI copies all private account sharing permissions
D. Yes, since copy AMI copies all the permissions attached with the AMI

191. An organization is planning to use AWS for 5 different departments. The finance department is responsible to pay for all the accounts. However, they want the cost separation for each account to map with the right cost centre. How can thefinance department achieve this?
A. Create 5 separate accounts and make them a part of one consolidate billing
B. Create 5 separate accounts and use the IAM cross account access with the roles for better management
C. Create 5 separate IAM users and set a different policy for their access
D. Create 5 separate IAM groups and add users as per the department’s employees

192. A user is trying to aggregate all the CloudWatch metric data of the last 1 week. Which of the below mentioned statisticsis not available for the user as a part of data aggregation?
A. Aggregate
B. Sum
C. Sample data
D. Average
available statistics: Minimum, Maximum, Sum, Average, SampleCount

193. An organization has created 5 IAM users. The organization wants to give them the same login ID but different passwords. How can the organization achieve this?
A. The organization should create a separate login ID but give the IAM users the same alias so that each one can login with their alias
B. The organization should create each user in a separate region so that they have their own URL to login
C. It is not possible to have the same login ID for multiple IAM users of the same account
D. The organization should create various groups and add each user with the same login ID to different groups. The user can login with their own group ID

194. A user has configured ELB with SSL using a security policy for secure negotiation between the client and load balancer. The ELB security policy supports various ciphers. Which of the below mentioned options helps identify the matching cipher at the client side to the ELB cipher list when client is requesting ELB DNS over SSL?
A. Cipher Protocol
B. Client Configuration Preference
C. Server Order Preference
D. Load Balancer Preference

195. A user has launched 5 instances in EC2-CLASSIC and attached 5 elastic IPs to the five different instances in the US East region. The user is creating a VPC in the same region. The user wants to assign an elastic IP to the VPC instance. How can the user achieve this?
A. The user has to request AWS to increase the number of elastic IPs associated with the account
B. AWS allows 10 EC2 Classic IPs per region; so it will allow to allocate new Elastic IPs to the same region
C. The AWS will not allow to create a new elastic IP in VPC; it will throw an error
D. The user can allocate a new IP address in VPC as it has a different limit than EC2
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196. A user has setup a CloudWatch alarm on an EC2 action when the CPU utilization is above 75%. The alarm sends anotification to SNS on the alarm state. If the user wants to simulate the alarm action how can he achieve this?
A. Run activities on the CPU such that its utilization reaches above 75%
B. From the AWS console change the state to `Alarm’
C. The user can set the alarm state to `Alarm’ using CLI
D. Run the SNS action manually

http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonCloudWatch/latest/monitoring/AlarmThatSendsEmail.html

197. A user is trying to setup a security policy for ELB. The user wants ELB to meet the cipher supported by the client byconfiguring the server order preference in ELB security policy. Which of the below mentioned preconfigured policiessupports this feature?
A. ELBSecurity Policy-2014-01
B. ELBSecurity Policy-2011-08
C. ELBDefault Negotiation Policy
D. ELBSample-OpenSSLDefault Cipher Policy
Choose the latest in
http://www.aiotestking.com/amazon/which-of-the-below-mentioned-preconfigured-policies-supports-this-feature/

198. A user has configured an Auto Scaling group with ELB. The user has enabled detailed CloudWatch monitoring on AutoScaling. Which of the below mentioned statements will help the user understand the functionality better?
A. It is not possible to setup detailed monitoring for Auto Scaling
B. In this case, Auto Scaling will send data every minute and will charge the user extra
C. Detailed monitoring will send data every minute without additional charges
D. Auto Scaling sends data every minute only and does not charge the user
http://calculator.s3.amazonaws.com/index.html

199. A user has configured an Auto Scaling group with ELB. The user has enabled detailed CloudWatch monitoring on ElasticLoad balancing. Which of the below mentioned statements will help the user understand this functionality better?
A. ELB sends data to CloudWatch every minute only and does not charge the user
B. ELB will send data every minute and will charge the user extra
C. ELB is not supported by CloudWatch
D. It is not possible to setup detailed monitoring for ELB

200. An organization is setting up programmatic billing access for their AWS account. Which of the below mentioned servicesis not required or enabled when the organization wants to use programmatic access?
A. Programmatic access
B. AWS bucket to hold the billing report
C. AWS billing alerts
D. Monthly Billing report
Explanation:
AWS provides an option to have programmatic access to billing. Programmatic Billing Access leverages the existing Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3. APIs. Thus, the user can build applications that reference his billing data from a CSV (comma-separated value. file stored in an Amazon S3 bucket. To enable programmatic access, the user has to first enable the monthly billing report. Then the user needs to provide an AWS bucket name where the billing CSV will be uploaded. The user should also enable the Programmatic access option.

201. A user has created a VPC with public and private subnets. The VPC has CIDR 20.0.0.0/16. The private subnet usesCIDR 20.0.1.0/24 and the public subnet uses CIDR 20.0.0.0/24. The user is planning to host a web server in the publicsubnet (port 80) and a DB server in the private subnet (port 3306). The user is configuring a security group of the NATinstance. Which of the below mentioned entries is not required for the NAT security group?
A. For Inbound allow Source: 20.0.1.0/24 on port 80
B. For Outbound allow Destination: 0.0.0.0/0 on port 80
C. For Inbound allow Source: 20.0.0.0/24 on port 80
D. For Outbound allow Destination: 0.0.0.0/0 on port 443

202. A sys admin is trying to understand the sticky session algorithm. Please select the correct sequence of steps, both when the cookie is present and when it is not, to help the admin understand the implementation of the sticky session:
1. ELB inserts the cookie in the response
2. ELB chooses the instance based on the load balancing algorithm
3. Check the cookie in the service request
4. The cookie is found in the request
5. The cookie is not found in the request
A. 3,1,4,2 [Cookie is not Present] & 3,1,5,2 [Cookie is Present]
B. 3,4,1,2 [Cookie is not Present] & 3,5,1,2 [Cookie is Present]
C. 3,5,2,1 [Cookie is not Present] & 3,4,2,1 [Cookie is Present]
D. 3,2,5,4 [Cookie is not Present] & 3,2,4,5 [Cookie is Present]
Explanation:
Generally AWS ELB routes each request to a zone with the minimum load. The Elastic Load Balancer provides a feature called sticky session which binds the user’s session with a specific EC2 instance. The load balancer uses a special load-balancer-generated cookie to track the application instance for each request. When the load balancer receives a request, it first checks to see if this cookie is present in the request. If so, the request is sent to the application instance specified in the cookie. If there is no cookie, the load balancer chooses an application instance based on the existing load balancing algorithm. A cookie is inserted into the response for binding subsequent requests from the same user to that application instance.

203. A user is trying to setup a recurring Auto Scaling process. The user has setup one process to scale up every day at 8 am and scale down at 7 PM. The user is trying to setup another recurring process which scales up on the 1st of every month at 8 AM and scales down the same day at 7 PM. What will Auto Scaling do in this scenario?
A. Auto Scaling will execute both processes but will add just one instance on the 1st
B. Auto Scaling will add two instances on the 1st of the month
C. Auto Scaling will schedule both the processes but execute only one process randomly
D. Auto Scaling will throw an error since there is a conflict in the schedule of two separate Auto Scaling Processes

204. An organization is using AWS since a few months. The finance team wants to visualize the pattern of AWS spending. Which of the below AWS tool will help for this requirement?
A. AWS Cost Manager
B. AWS Cost Explorer
C. AWS CloudWatch
D. AWS Consolidated Billing

205. A sys admin is trying to understand EBS snapshots. Which of the below mentioned statements will not be useful to the admin to understand the concepts about a snapshot?
A. The snapshot is synchronous
B. It is recommended to stop the instance before taking a snapshot for consistent data
C. The snapshot is incremental
D. The snapshot captures the data that has been written to the hard disk when the snapshot command was executed

206. A user is planning to use AWS services for his web application. If the user is trying to set up his own billing management system for AWS, how can he configure it?
A. Set up programmatic billing access. Download and parse the bill as per the requirement
B. It is not possible for the user to create his own billing management service with AWS
C. Enable the AWS CloudWatch alarm which will provide APIs to download the alarm data
D. Use AWS billing APIs to download the usage report of each service from the AWS billing console

207. A user has created a VPC with the public and private subnets using the VPC wizard. The VPC has CIDR 20.0.0.0/16.The public subnet uses CIDR 20.0.1.0/24. The user is planning to host a web server in the public subnet (port 80) and aDB server in the private subnet (port 3306). The user is configuring a security group for the public subnet (WebSecGrp)and the private subnet (DBSecGrp). Which of the below mentioned entries is required in the private subnet databasesecurity group (DBSecGrp)?
A. Allow Inbound on port 3306 for Source Web Server Security Group (WebSecGrp)
B. Allow Inbound on port 3306 from source 20.0.0.0/16
C. Allow Outbound on port 3306 for Destination Web Server Security Group (WebSecGrp)
D. Allow Outbound on port 80 for Destination NAT Instance IP

208. A user has launched multiple EC2 instances for the purpose of development and testing in the same region. The user wants to find the separate cost for the production and development instances. How can the user find the cost distribution?
A. The user should download the activity report of the EC2 services as it has the instance ID wise data
B. It is not possible to get the AWS cost usage data of single region instances separately
C. The user should use Cost Distribution Metadata and AWS detailed billing
D. The user should use Cost Allocation Tags and AWS billing reports

209. A user has created an ELB with the availability zone US-East-1A. The user wants to add more zones to ELB to achieve High Availability. How can the user add more zones to the existing ELB?
A. It is not possible to add more zones to the existing ELB
B. The only option is to launch instances in different zones and add to ELB
C. The user should stop the ELB and add zones and instances as required
D. The user can add zones on the fly from the AWS console

210. A user is planning to use AWS Cloud formation for his automatic deployment requirements. Which of the below mentionedcomponents are required as a part of the template?
A. Parameters
B. Outputs
C. Template version
D. Resources

211. An organization has created 10 IAM users. The organization wants each of the IAM users to have access to a separate DyanmoDB table. All the users are added to the same group and the organization wants to setup a group level policy for this. How can the organization achieve this?
A. Define the group policy and add a condition which allows the access based on the IAM name
B. Create a DynamoDB table with the same name as the IAM user name and define the policy rule which grants access based on the DynamoDB ARN using a variable
C. Create a separate DynamoDB database for each user and configure a policy in the group based on the DB variable
D. It is not possible to have a group level policy which allows different IAM users to different DynamoDB Tables

212. A user is trying to configure the CloudWatch billing alarm. Which of the below mentioned steps should be performed by the user for the first time alarm creation in the AWS Account Management section?
A. Enable Receiving Billing Reports
B. Enable Receiving Billing Alerts
C. Enable AWS billing utility
D. Enable CloudWatch Billing Threshold

213. A user is running one instance for only 3 hours every day. The user wants to save some cost with the instance. Which of the below mentioned Reserved Instance categories is advised in this case?
A. The user should not use RI; instead only go with the on-demand pricing
B. The user should use the AWS high utilized RI
C. The user should use the AWS medium utilized RI
D. The user should use the AWS low utilized RI

seems question before the introduction of the Scheduled Reserved instances in Jan 2016, which can be used in this case

214. A user has configured the AWS CloudWatch alarm for estimated usage charges in the US East region. Which of the below mentioned statements is not true with respect to the estimated charges?
A. It will store the estimated charges data of the last 14 days
B. It will include the estimated charges of every AWS service
C. The metric data will represent the data of all the regions
D. The metric data will show data specific to that region

215. A user has created a subnet with VPC and launched an EC2 instance in that subnet with only default settings. Which of the below mentioned options is ready to use on the EC2 instance as soon as it is launched?
A. Elastic IP
B. Private IP
C. Public IP
D. Internet gateway
With default settings, the user has not yet assign Elastic IP, so the correct answer is B

216. A user has enabled session stickiness with ELB. The user does not want ELB to manage the cookie; instead he wants the application to manage the cookie. What will happen when the server instance, which is bound to a cookie, crashes?
A. The response will have a cookie but stickiness will be deleted
B. The session will not be sticky until a new cookie is inserted
C. ELB will throw an error due to cookie unavailability
D. The session will be sticky and ELB will route requests to another server as ELB keeps replicating the Cookie

217. A user has configured CloudWatch monitoring on an EBS backed EC2 instance. If the user has not attached any additional device, which of the below mentioned metrics will always show a 0 value?
A. DiskReadBytes
B. NetworkIn
C. NetworkOut
D. CPUUtilization

218. A user has received a message from the support team that an issue occurred 1 week back between 3 AM to 4 AM and the EC2 server was not reachable. The user is checking the CloudWatch metrics of that instance. How can the user find the data easily using the CloudWatch console?
A. The user can find the data by giving the exact values in the time Tab under CloudWatch metrics.
B. The user can find the data by filtering values of the last 1 week for a 1 hour period in the Relative tab under CloudWatch metrics.
C. It is not possible to find the exact time from the console. The user has to use CLI to provide the specific time.
D. The user can find the data by giving the exact values in the Absolute tab under CloudWatch metrics.

219. A user has created a photo editing software and hosted it on EC2. The software accepts requests from the user about the photo format and resolution and sends a message to S3 to enhance the picture accordingly. Which of the below mentioned AWS services will help make a scalable software with the AWS infrastructure in this scenario?
A. AWS Glacier
B. AWS Elastic Transcoder
C. AWS Simple Notification Service
D. AWS Simple Queue Service

220. A sys admin is trying to understand the Auto Scaling activities. Which of the below mentioned processes is not performed by Auto Scaling?
A. Reboot Instance
B. Schedule Actions
C. Replace Unhealthy
D. Availability Zone Balancing

221. You are using ElastiCache Memcached to store session state and cache database queries in your infrastructure You notice in Cloud Watch that Evictions and GetMisses are Doth very high. What two actions could you take to rectify this?(Choose two.)
A. Increase the number of nodes in your cluster
B. Tweak the max-item-size parameter
C. Shrink the number of nodes in your cluster
D. Increase the size of the nodes in the duster

222. A user has configured ELB with two EBS backed EC2 instances. The user is trying to understand the DNS access and IP support for ELB. Which of the below mentioned statements may not help the user understand the IP mechanism supported by ELB?
A. The client can connect over IPV4 or IPV6 using Dualstack
B. ELB DNS supports both IPV4 and IPV6
C. Communication between the load balancer and back-end instances is always through IPV4
D. The ELB supports either IPV4 or IPV6 but not both

223. A user has setup an EBS backed instance and a CloudWatch alarm when the CPU utilization is more than 65%. The user has setup the alarm to watch it for 5 periods of 5 minutes each. The CPU utilization is 60% between 9 AM to 6 PM. The user has stopped the EC2 instance for 15 minutes between 11 AM to 11:15 AM. What will be the status of the alarm at 11:30 AM?
A. Alarm
B. OK
C. Insufficient Data
D. Error
It’s B, since the user stopped the EC2 instance for 15 minutes, and the alarm it’s set for 5 periods of 5 minutes
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonCloudWatch/latest/monitoring/AlarmThatSendsEmail.html

224. A user has launched 10 instances from the same AMI ID using Auto Scaling. The user is trying to see the average CPUutilization across all instances of the last 2 weeks under the CloudWatch console. How can the user achieve this?
A. View the Auto Scaling CPU metrics
B. Aggregate the data over the instance AMI ID
C. The user has to use the CloudWatch analyzer to find the average data across instances
D. It is not possible to see the average CPU utilization of the same AMI ID since the instance ID is different

225. A system admin is planning to setup event notifications on RDS. Which of the below mentioned services will help the admin setup notifications?
A. AWS SES
B. AWS Cloudtrail
C. AWS Cloudwatch
D. AWS SNS
226. You have a Linux EC2 web server instance running inside a VPC The instance is In a public subnet and has an EIP associated with it so you can connect to It over the Internet via HTTP or SSH The instance was also fully accessible whenyou last logged in via SSH. and was also serving web requests on port 80. Now you are not able to SSH into the host nor does it respond to web requests on port 80 that were working fine last time you checked. You have double-checked thatall networking configuration parameters (security groups route tables. IGW’EIP, NACLs etc.) are properly configured {and you haven’t made any changes to those anyway since you were last able to reach the Instance). You look at the EC2 console and notice that system status check shows “impaired”. Which should be your next step in troubleshooting and attempting to get the instance back to a healthy state so that you can log in again?
A. Stop and start the instance so that it will be able to be redeployed on a healthy host system that most likely will fix the “impaired” system status.
B. Reboot your instance so that the operating system will have a chance to boot in a clean healthy state that most likely will fix the ‘impaired” system status.
C. Add another dynamic private IP address to me instance and try to connect via mat new path, since the networking stack of the OS may be locked up causing the “impaired” system status.
D. Add another Elastic Network Interface to the instance and try to connect via that new path since the networking stack of the OS may be locked up causing the “impaired” system status.
E. un-map and then re-map the EIP to the instance, since the IGWV NAT gateway may not be working properly, causing the “impaired” system status.

227. An application is generating a log file every 5 minutes. The log file is not critical but may be required only for verification in case of some major issue. The file should be accessible over the internet whenever required. Which of the below mentioned options is a best possible storage solution for it?
A. AWS S3
B. AWS Glacier
C. AWS RDS
D. AWS RRS

228. A user is trying to delete an Auto Scaling group from CLI. Which of the below mentioned steps are to be performed by the user?
A. Terminate the instances with the ec2-terminate-instance command
B. Terminate the Auto Scaling instances with the as-terminate-instance command
C. Set the minimum size and desired capacity to 0
D. There is no need to change the capacity. Run the as-delete-group command and it will reset all values to 0

229. An organization has added 3 of his AWS accounts to consolidated billing. One of the AWS accounts has purchased a Reserved Instance (RI) of a small instance size in the US-East-1a zone. All other AWS accounts are running instances of a small size in the same zone. What will happen in this case for the RI pricing?
A. Only the account that has purchased the RI will get the advantage of RI pricing
B. One instance of a small size and running in the US-East-1a zone of each AWS account will get the benefit of RI pricing
C. Any single instance from all the three accounts can get the benefit of AWS RI pricing if they are running in the same zone and are of the same size
D. If there are more than one instances of a small size running across multiple accounts in the same zone no one will get the benefit of RI

230. You use S3 to store critical data for your company Several users within your group currently have lull permissions to yourS3 buckets You need to come up with a solution mat does not impact your users and also protect against the accidental deletion of objects. Which two options will address this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Enable versioning on your S3 Buckets
B. Configure your S3 Buckets with MFA delete
C. Create a Bucket policy and only allow read only permissions to all users at the bucket level
D. Enable object life cycle policies and configure the data older than 3 months to be archived in Glacier

231. A user is launching an instance. He is on the “Tag the instance” screen. Which of the below mentioned information will not help the user understand the functionality of an AWS tag?
A. Each tag will have a key and value
B. The user can apply tags to the S3 bucket
C. The maximum value of the tag key length is 64 unicode characters
D. AWS tags are used to find the cost distribution of various resources

232. A user has setup connection draining with ELB to allow in-flight requests to continue while the instance is being deregistered through Auto Scaling. If the user has not specified the draining time, how long will ELB allow inflight requests traffic to continue?
A. 600 seconds
B. 3600 seconds
C. 300 seconds
D. 0 seconds

When you enable connection draining, you can specify a maximum time for the load balancer to keep connections alive before reporting the instance as de-registered. The maximum timeout value can be set between 1 and 3,600 seconds (the default is 300 seconds). When the maximum time limit is reached, the load balancer forcibly closes connections to the de-registering instance.

233. A user has launched an EC2 instance. The user is planning to setup the CloudWatch alarm. Which of the below mentioned actions is not supported by the CloudWatch alarm?
A. Notify the Auto Scaling launch config to scale up
B. Send an SMS using SNS
C. Notify the Auto Scaling group to scale down
D. Stop the EC2 instance

cloud watch can notify the ASG but not the Auto Scaling launch config.
234. You are managing the AWS account of a big organization. The organization has more than 1000+ employees and they want to provide access to the various services to most of the employees. Which of the below mentioned options is the best possible solution in this case?
A. The user should create a separate IAM user for each employee and provide access to them as per the policy.
B. The user should create an IAM role and attach STS with the role. The user should attach that role to the EC2 instance and setup AWS authentication on that server.
C. The user should create IAM groups as per the organization’s departments and add each user to the group for better access control.
D. Attach an IAM role with the organization’s authentication service to authorize each user for various AWS services.

235. A user has setup a billing alarm using CloudWatch for $200. The usage of AWS exceeded $200 after some days. The user wants to increase the limit from $200 to $400. What should the user do?
A. Create a new alarm of $400 and link it with the first alarm
B. It is not possible to modify the alarm once it has crossed the usage limit
C. Update the alarm to set the limit at $400 instead of $200
D. Create a new alarm for the additional $200 amount
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonCloudWatch/latest/monitoring/monitor_estimated_charges_with_cloudwatch.html#editing_billing_alarm

236. A user has launched an EBS backed EC2 instance. The user has rebooted the instance. Which of the below mentioned statements is not true with respect to the reboot action?
A. The private and public address remains the same
B. The Elastic IP remains associated with the instance
C. The volume is preserved
D. The instance runs on a new host computer

237. A user is planning to use AWS Cloudformation. Which of the below mentioned functionalities does not help him to correctly understand Cloudfromation?
A. Cloudformation follows the DevOps model for the creation of Dev & Test.
B. AWS Cloudfromation does not charge the user for its service but only charges for the AWS resources created with it.
C. Cloudformation works with a wide variety of AWS services, such as EC2, EBS, VPC, IAM, S3, RDS, ELB, etc.
D. CloudFormation provides a set of application bootstrapping scripts which enables the user to install Software.

238. A user has setup a VPC with CIDR 20.0.0.0/16. The VPC has a private subnet (20.0.1.0/24) and a public subnet(20.0.0.0/24). The user’s data centre has CIDR of 20.0.54.0/24 and 20.1.0.0/24. If the private subnet wants to communicate with the data centre, what will happen?
A. It will allow traffic communication on both the CIDRs of the data centre
B. It will not allow traffic with data centre on CIDR 20.1.0.0/24 but allows traffic communication on 20.0.54.0/24
C. It will not allow traffic communication on any of the data centre CIDRs
D. It will allow traffic with data centre on CIDR 20.1.0.0/24 but does not allow on 20.0.54.0/24
D: as the CIDR block would be overlappin
20.0.54.0/24
00010100.00000000.00110110 .00000000
00010100.00000000.00110110 .11111111
20.0.0.0/16
00010100.00000000 .00000000.00000000
00010100.00000000 .11111111.11111111

239. A user has launched an EBS backed instance. The user started the instance at 9 AM in the morning. Between 9 AM to10 AM, the user is testing some script. Thus, he stopped the instance twice and restarted it. In the same hour the user rebooted the instance once. For how many instance hours will AWS charge the user?
A. 3 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 2 hours
D. 1 hour

240. The majority of your Infrastructure is on premises and you have a small footprint on AWS. Your company has decided to roll out a new application that is heavily dependent on low latency connectivity to LDAP for authentication. Your security policy requires minimal changes to the company’s existing application user management processes. What option would you implement to successfully launch this application?
A. Create a second, independent LDAP server in AWS for your application to use for authentication
B. Establish a VPN connection so your applications can authenticate against your existing on-premises LDAP servers
C. Establish a VPN connection between your data center and AWS create a LDAP replica on AWS and configure your application to use the LDAP replica for authentication
D. Create a second LDAP domain on AWS establish a VPN connection to establish a trust relationship between your new and existing domains and use the new domain for authentication

241. A user is receiving a notification from the RDS DB whenever there is a change in the DB security group. The user does not want to receive these notifications for only a month. Thus, he does not want to delete the notification. How can the user configure this?
A. Change the Disable button for notification to “Yes” in the RDS console
B. Set the send mail flag to false in the DB event notification console
C. The only option is to delete the notification from the console
D. Change the Enable button for notification to “No” in the RDS console

Enabled radio button to No
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonRDS/latest/UserGuide/USER_Events.html

242. A user has enabled detailed CloudWatch metric monitoring on an Auto Scaling group. Which of the below mentioned metrics will help the user identify the total number of instances in an Auto Scaling group cluding pending, terminating and running instances?
A. GroupTotalInstances
B. GroupSumInstances
C. It is not possible to get a count of all the three metrics together. The user has to find the individual number of running, terminating and pending instances and sum it.
D. GroupInstancesCount
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonCloudWatch/latest/monitoring/as-metricscollected.html

243. A user has recently started using EC2. The user launched one EC2 instance in the default subnet in EC2-VPC. Which of the below mentioned options is not attached or available with the EC2 instance when it is launched?
A. Public IP address
B. Internet gateway
C. Elastic IP
D. Private IP address

244. A user has hosted an application on EC2 instances. The EC2 instances are configured with ELB and Auto Scaling. The application server session time out is 2 hours. The user wants to configure connection draining to ensure that all in-flight requests are supported by ELB even though the instance is being deregistered. What time out period should the user specify for connection draining?
A. 5 minutes
B. 1 hour
C. 30 minutes
D. 2 hours
max allowed is 3600 secs that is close to 2 hours to keep the in flight requests alive
The maximum timeout value can be set between 1 and 3,600 seconds (the default is 300 seconds). When the maximum time limit is reached, the load balancer forcibly closes connections to the de-registering instance.

245. You are building an online store on AWS that uses SQS to process your customer orders. Your backend system needs those messages in the same sequence the customer orders have been put in. How can you achieve that?
A. It is not possible to do this with SQS
B. You can use sequencing information on each message
C. You can do this with SQS but you also need to use SWF
D. Messages will arrive in the same order by default

Message Ordering
A standard queue makes a best effort to preserve the order of messages, but more than one copy of a message might be delivered out of order. If your system requires that order be preserved, we recommend either using a FIFO (First-In-First-Out) queue or adding sequencing information in each message so you can reorder the messages when they’re received.

246. A root account owner has created an S3 bucket test my cloud. The account owner wants to allow everyone to upload the objects as well as enforce that the person who uploaded the object should manage the permission of those objects. Which is the easiest way to achieve this?
A. The root account owner should create a bucket policy which allows the IAM users to upload the object
B. The root account owner should create the bucket policy which allows the other account owners to set the object policy of that bucket
C. The root account should use ACL with the bucket to allow everyone to upload the object
D. The root account should create the IAM users and provide them the permission to upload content to the bucket

C:- key word is should manage the permission of those object. From ACL only u can manage object level permission.
247. A user has created a queue named “myqueue” in US-East region with AWS SQS. The user’s AWS account ID is 123456789012. If the user wants to perform some action on this queue, which of the below Queue URL should he use?
A. http://sqs.us-east-1.amazonaws.com/123456789012/myqueue
B. http://sqs.amazonaws.com/123456789012/myqueue
C. http://sqs.123456789012.us-east-1.amazonaws.com/myqueue
D. http://123456789012.sqs.us-east-1.amazonaws.com/myqueue

Eg: http://sqs.us-east-2.amazonaws.com/123456789012/MyQueue

248. A user has created an ELB with Auto Scaling. Which of the below mentioned offerings from ELB helps the user to stop sending new requests traffic from the load balancer to the EC2 instance when the instance is being deregistered while continuing in-flight requests?
A. ELB sticky session
B. ELB deregistration check
C. ELB connection draining
D. ELB auto registration Off

249. A system admin wants to add more zones to the existing ELB. The system admin wants to perform this activity from CLI. Which of the below mentioned command helps the system admin to add new zones to the existing ELB?
A. elb-enable-zones-for-lb
B. elb-add-zones-for-lb
C. It is not possible to add more zones to the existing ELB
D. elb-configure-zones-for-lb

http://docs.aws.amazon.com/elasticloadbalancing/latest/classic/enable-disable-az.html

250. A user has created an ELB with three instances. How many security groups will ELB create by default?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 2
D. 1

One for ELB to allow inbound and Outbound to listener and health check port of instances and One for the Instances to allow inbound from ELB

251. A user has launched a large EBS backed EC2 instance in the US-East-1a region. The user wants to achieve DisasterRecovery (DR) for that instance by creating another small instance in Europe. How can the user achieve DR?
A. Copy the running instance using the “Instance Copy” command to the EU region
B. Create an AMI of the instance and copy the AMI to the EU region. Then launch the instance from the EU AMI
C. Copy the instance from the US East region to the EU region
D. Use the “Launch more like this” option to copy the instance from one region to another

252. A user has created a VPC with a subnet and a security group. The user has launched an instance in that subnet and attached a public IP. The user is still unable to connect to the instance. The internet gateway has also been created. What can be the reason for the error?
A. The internet gateway is not configured with the route table
B. The private IP is not present
C. The outbound traffic on the security group is disabled
D. The internet gateway is not configured with the security group

253. A customer is using AWS for Dev and Test. The customer wants to setup the Dev environment with Cloudformation.Which of the below mentioned steps are not required while using Cloudformation?
A. Create a stack
B. Configure a service
C. Create and upload the template
D. Provide the parameters configured as part of the template

254. A user has created an S3 bucket which is not publicly accessible. The bucket is having thirty objects which are alsoprivate. If the user wants to make the objects public, how can he configure this with minimal efforts?
A. The user should select all objects from the console and apply a single policy to mark them public
B. The user can write a program which programmatically makes all objects public using S3 SDK
C. Set the AWS bucket policy which marks all objects as public
D. Make the bucket ACL as public so it will also mark all objects as public

255. A user is trying to connect to a running EC2 instance using SSH. However, the user gets an Unprotected Private Key Fileerror. Which of the below mentioned options can be a possible reason for rejection?
A. The private key file has the wrong file permission
B. The ppk file used for SSH is read only
C. The public key file has the wrong permission
D. The user has provided the wrong user name for the OS login

256. A root AWS account owner is trying to understand various options to set the permission to AWS S3. Which of the belowmentioned options is not the right option to grant permission for S3?
A. User Access Policy
B. S3 Object Access Policy
C. S3 Bucket Access Policy
D. S3 ACL

257. A system admin is managing buckets, objects and folders with AWS S3. Which of the below mentioned statements is true and should be taken in consideration by the sysadmin?
A. The folders support only ACL
B. Both the object and bucket can have an Access Policy but folder cannot have policy
C. Folders can have a policy
D. Both the object and bucket can have ACL but folders cannot have ACL

258. You have been asked to propose a multi-region deployment of a web-facing application where a controlled portion of your traffic is being processed by an alternate region. Which configuration would achieve that goal?
A. Route53 record sets with weighted routing policy
B. Route53 record sets with latency based routing policy
C. Auto Scaling with scheduled scaling actions set
D. Elastic Load Balancing with health checks enabled

Portion: phân phát chia ra
We need to control which region is used

259. You have been asked to leverage Amazon VPC BC2 and SQS to implement an application that submits and receivesmillions of messages per second to a message queue. You want to ensure your application has sufficient bandwidthbetween your EC2 instances and SQS. Which option will provide the most scalable solution for communicating betweenthe application and SQS?
A. Ensure the application instances are properly configured with an Elastic Load Balancer
B. Ensure the application instances are launched in private subnets with the EBS-optimized option enabled
C. Ensure the application instances are launched in public subnets with the associate-public-IP address=true option enabled
D. Launch application instances in private subnets with an Auto Scaling group and Auto Scaling triggers configured to watch the SQS queue size

260. A user is trying to launch an EBS backed EC2 instance under free usage. The user wants to achieve encryption of the EBS volume. How can the user encrypt the data at rest?
A. Use AWS EBS encryption to encrypt the data at rest
B. The user cannot use EBS encryption and has to encrypt the data manually or using a third party tool
C. The user has to select the encryption enabled flag while launching the EC2 instance
D. Encryption of volume is not available as a part of the free usage tier

261. A user has a refrigerator plant. The user is measuring the temperature of the plant every 15 minutes. If the user wants to send the data to CloudWatch to view the data visually, which of the below mentioned statements is true with respect to the information given above?
A. The user needs to use AWS CLI or API to upload the data
B. The user can use the AWS Import Export facility to import data to CloudWatch
C. The user will upload data from the AWS console
D. The user cannot upload data to CloudWatch since it is not an AWS service metric

262. Which of the below mentioned AWS RDS logs cannot be viewed from the console for MySQL?
A. Error Log
B. Slow Query Log
C. Transaction Log
D. General Log

The user can view, download, and watch the database logs using the Amazon RDS console, the Command Line Interface (CLI., or the Amazon RDS API. For the MySQL RDS, the user can view the error log, slow querylog, and general logs. RDS does not support viewing the transaction logs.
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonRDS/latest/UserGuide/USER_LogAccess.Concepts.MySQL.html

263. A user has configured the Auto Scaling group with the minimum capacity as 3 and the maximum capacity as 5. When the user configures the AS group, how many instances will Auto Scaling launch?
A. 3
B. 0
C. 5
D. 2

264. A user has launched an EC2 instance from an instance store backed AMI. The infrastructure team wants to create an AMI from the running instance. Which of the below mentioned credentials is not required while creating the AMI?
A. AWS account ID
B. X.509 certificate and private key
C. AWS login ID to login to the console
D. Access key and secret access key
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/creating-an-ami-instance-store.html

265. You are using ElastiCache Memcached to store session state and cache database queries in your infrastructure. Younotice in Cloud Watch that Evictions and GetMisses are Doth very high. What two actions could you take to rectify this?(Choose two.)
A. Increase the number of nodes in your cluster
B. Tweak the max-item-size parameter
C. Shrink the number of nodes in your cluster
D. Increase the size of the nodes in the duster

266. When attached to an Amazon VPC which two components provide connectivity with external networks?Choose 2 answers
A. Elastic IPS (EIP)
B. NAT Gateway (NAT)
C. Internet Gateway {IGW)
D. Virtual Private Gateway (VGW)

A: Does not provide connectivity, public IP address will do as well
B: not Attached to VPC, only attached to subnets and still needs IGW

267. Which of the following statements about this S3 bucket policy is true?
{
“Id”: “IPAllowPolicy”
“Statement”:[
{
“Sid”: “IPAllow”,
“Action”: “s3”,
“Effect”: “Allow”,
“Resource”: “arn:aws:s3:::mybucket/*,
“Condition”: {
“IPAddress”: {
“aws:SourceIP”: “192.168.100.0/24”
},
“NotipAddress”: {
“aws:SourceIp”: “192.168.100.188/32
}
},
“Principal”: {
“AWS”: {
“*”
]
}
}
]
}
A. Denies the server with the IP address 192.166 100.0 full access to the “mybucket” bucket
B. Denies the server with the IP address 192.166 100.188 full access to the “mybucket bucket
C. Grants all the servers within the 192 168 100 0/24 subnet full access to the “mybucket” bucket
D. Grants all the servers within the 192 168 100 188/32 subnet full access to the “mybucket” bucket

268. A customer has a web application that uses cookie Based sessions to track logged in users It Is deployed on AWS using ELB and Auto Scaling The customer observes that when load increases. Auto Scaling launches new Instances but the load on the easting Instances does not decrease, causing all existing users to have a sluggish experience. Which two answer choices independently describe a behavior that could be the cause of the sluggish user experience? Choose 2 answers
A. ELB’s normal behavior sends requests from the same user to the same backend instance
B. ELB’s behavior when sticky sessions are enabled causes ELB to send requests in the same session to the same backend instance
C. A faulty browser is not honoring the TTL of the ELB DNS name.
D. The web application uses long polling such as comet or websockets. Thereby keeping a connection open to a web server tor a long time
E. The web application uses long polling such as comet or websockets. Thereby keeping a connection open to a web server for a long time.

270. You are tasked with setting up a cluster of EC2 Instances for a NoSQL database. The database requires randomread IO disk performance up to a 100,000 IOPS at 4KB block side per node.Which of the following EC2 instances will perform the best for this workload?
A. A High-Memory Quadruple Extra Large (m2.4xlarge) with EBS-Optimized set to true and a PIOPs EBS volume
B. A Cluster Compute Eight Extra Large (cc2.8xlarge) using instance storage
C. High I/O Quadruple Extra Large (hi1.4xlarge) using instance storage
D. A Cluster GPU Quadruple Extra Large (cg1.4xlarge) using four separate 4000 PIOPS EBS volumes in a RAID 0 configuration
https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/aws/new-high-io-ec2-instance-type-hi14xlarge/

271. A media company produces new video files on-premises every day with a total size of around 100GBS after compression All files have a size of 1 -2 GB and need to be uploaded to Amazon S3 every night in a fixed time window between 3am and 5am Current upload takes almost 3 hours, although less than half of the available bandwidth is used. What step(s) would ensure that the file uploads are able to complete in the allotted time window?
A. Increase your network bandwidth to provide faster throughput to S3
B. Upload the files in parallel to S3
C. Pack all files into a single archive, upload it to S3, then extract the files in AWS
D. Use AWS Import/Export to transfer the video files

272. A sys admin is maintaining an application on AWS. The application is installed on EC2 and user has configured ELB and Auto Scaling. Considering future load increase, the user is planning to launch new servers proactively so that they get registered with ELB. How can the user add these instances with Auto Scaling?
A. Increase the desired capacity of the Auto Scaling group
B. Increase the maximum limit of the Auto Scaling group
C. Launch an instance manually and register it with ELB on the fly
D. Decrease the minimum limit of the Auto Scaling group

273. Amazon EBS snapshots have which of the following two characteristics? (Choose 2.) Choose 2 answers
A. EBS snapshots only save incremental changes from snapshot to snapshot
B. EBS snapshots can be created in real-time without stopping an EC2 instance
C. EBS snapshots can only be restored to an EBS volume of the same size or smaller
D. EBS snapshots can only be restored and mounted to an instance in the same Availability Zone as the original EBS volume

274. An organization is trying to create various IAM users. Which of the below mentioned options is not a valid IAM username?
A. John.cloud
B. [email protected]
C. John=cloud
D. john#cloud

275. Which method can be used to prevent an IP address block from accessing public objects in an S3 bucket?
A. Create a bucket policy and apply it to the bucket
B. Create a NACL and attach it to the VPC of the bucket
C. Create an ACL and apply it to all objects in the bucket
D. Modify the IAM policies of any users that would access the bucket

276. A user has configured Auto Scaling with 3 instances. The user had created a new AMI after updating one of the instances. If the user wants to terminate two specific instances to ensure that Auto Scaling launches an instances with the new launch configuration, which command should he run?
A. as-delete-instance-in-auto-scaling-group <Instance ID> –no-decrement-desired-capacity
B. as-terminate-instance-in-auto-scaling-group <Instance ID> –update-desired-capacity
C. as-terminate-instance-in-auto-scaling-group <Instance ID> –decrement-desired-capacity
D. as-terminate-instance-in-auto-scaling-group <Instance ID> –no-decrement-desired-capacity

277. A user is running a batch process on EBS backed EC2 instances. The batch process starts a few instances to process hadoop Map reduce jobs which can run between 50 – 600 minutes or sometimes for more time. Theuser wants to configure that the instance gets terminated only when the process is completed. How can theuser configure this with CloudWatch?
A. Setup the CloudWatch action to terminate the instance when the CPU utilization is less than 5%
B. Setup the CloudWatch with Auto Scaling to terminate all the instances
C. Setup a job which terminates all instances after 600 minutes
D. It is not possible to terminate instances automatically

278. A system admin is planning to encrypt all objects being uploaded to S3 from an application. The system admindoes not want to implement his own encryption algorithm; instead he is planning to use server side encryptionby supplying his own key (SSE-C.. Which parameter is not required while making a call for SSE-C?
A. x-amz-server-side-encryption-customer-key-AES-256
B. x-amz-server-side-encryption-customer-key
C. x-amz-server-side-encryption-customer-algorithm
D. x-amz-server-side-encryption-customer-key-MD5

279. When working with Amazon RDS, by default AWS is responsible for implementing which two management-related activities? (Pick 2 correct answers)
A. Importing data and optimizing queries
B. Installing and periodically patching the database software
C. Creating and maintaining automated database backups with a point-in-time recovery of up to five minutes
D. Creating and maintaining automated database backups in compliance with regulatory long-term retention requirements

They said the correct answers are B and C. But for somehow, i think B and D are correct. I looked it up for “up to 5 minutes” in RDS FAQ but didn’t find anything. Hope someone shed some light on this question.
280. You have been tasked with identifying an appropriate storage solution for a NoSQL database that requires random I/O reads of greater than 100,000 4kB IOPS.
Which EC2 option will meet this requirement?
A. SSD instance store
B. EBS provisioned IOPS
C. High Storage instance configured in RAID 10
D. EBS optimized instances

281. You run a stateless web application with the following components: Elastic Load Balancer (ELB), 3 Web/Application servers on EC2, and 1 MySQL RDS database with 5000 Provisioned IOPS. Average response time for users is increasing. Looking at CloudWatch, you observe 95% CPU usage on the Web/Application servers and 20% CPU usage on the database. The average number of database disk operations varies between 2000 and 2500.
Which two options could improve response times? (Pick 2 correct answers)
A. Choose a different EC2 instance type for the Web/Application servers with a more appropriate CPU/memory ratio
B. Use Auto Scaling to add additional Web/Application servers based on a CPU load threshold
C. Increase the number of open TCP connections allowed per web/application EC2 instance
D. Use Auto Scaling to add additional Web/Application servers based on a memory usage threshold

282. You are tasked with setting up a cluster of EC2 Instances for a NoSQL database. The database requires random read IO disk performance up to a 100,000 IOPS at 4KB block side per node.
Which of the following EC2 instances will perform the best for this workload?
A. A High-Memory Quadruple Extra Large (m2.4xlarge) with EBS-Optimized set to true and a PIOPs EBS volume
B. A Cluster Compute Eight Extra Large (cc2.8xlarge) using instance storage
C. High I/O Quadruple Extra Large (hi1.4xlarge) using instance storage
D. A Cluster GPU Quadruple Extra Large (cg1.4xlarge) using four separate 4000 PIOPS EBS volumes in a RAID 0 configuration

283. A user has configured an Auto Scaling group with ELB. The user has enabled detailed CloudWatch monitoring on Elastic Load balancing. Which of the below mentioned statements will help the user understand this functionality better?
A. ELB sends data to CloudWatch every minute only and does not charge the user
B. ELB will send data every minute and will charge the user extra
C. ELB is not supported by CloudWatch
D. It is not possible to setup detailed monitoring for ELB